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CDS I 2026 General Knowledge with Solutions

Exam: CDS Year: 2026 (Session I) Held on: 12 April 2026 Questions: 120 Marks: 100 Negative Marking: 1/3

Booklet series: Booklet Series A (KPRS-S-KLG). UPSC shuffles the option order between booklet series, so the option letters below apply to this series only. If you sat a different series, match the answer by its text, not by its letter.

Q.1 [Biology]

The central cytoplasmic region of a prokaryotic cell containing nucleic acids is called :

(a) Nucleus
(b) Nucleoid ✓
(c) Nucleolus
(d) Plastid

Solution: (b) Prokaryotes have no membrane-bound nucleus; their genetic material lies in an irregular region of the cytoplasm called the nucleoid.

Q.2 [Biology]

Nearly all infants benefit from milk, but most adults cannot properly digest milk. If an elderly person can still digest milk, his body is producing enough of which enzyme?

(a) Cellulase
(b) Amylase
(c) Pectase
(d) Lactase ✓

Solution: (d) Lactase breaks down lactose, the milk sugar. Its production usually falls after childhood, causing lactose intolerance.

Q.3 [Biology]

The antibiotic penicillin can kill invading bacteria without harming human cells because it targets bacterial :

(a) Cell wall ✓
(b) Plasma membrane
(c) Ribosome
(d) Chromosome

Solution: (a) Penicillin blocks synthesis of the peptidoglycan cell wall. Human cells have no cell wall, so they are untouched.

Q.4 [Biology]

A researcher is studying different types of cells. In which cell type will he/she encounter the highest number of lysosomes?

(a) Pancreatic cell
(b) Ovarian cell
(c) Muscle cell in the thigh of a runner
(d) White blood cell ✓

Solution: (d) Phagocytic white blood cells digest engulfed microbes with lysosomal enzymes, so they are packed with lysosomes.

Q.5 [Biology]

Which one of the following is not a function of the pigment carotenoid?

(a) Responsible for yellow-orange hues of autumnal leaves
(b) Protecting chlorophyll from photo-oxidation
(c) Photoprotective role in our eyes
(d) Reaction centre in the pigment system ✓

Solution: (d) The reaction centre of a photosystem is always chlorophyll-a. Carotenoids are accessory pigments that absorb light and protect chlorophyll, and they colour autumn leaves.

Q.6 [Biology]

A world chess champion has curly hair, attached earlobes and freckles. Which one of the following traits is not likely to be passed on to his/her offsprings?

(a) Chess skills ✓
(b) Curly hair
(c) Attached earlobes
(d) Freckles

Solution: (a) Chess skill is an acquired trait, learned during a lifetime; acquired characters are not inherited. The other three are genetically determined.

Q.7 [Biology]

In humans, which chamber of the heart receives oxygen-rich blood from the lungs first?

(a) Left atrium ✓
(b) Right atrium
(c) Left ventricle
(d) Right ventricle

Solution: (a) Pulmonary veins bring oxygenated blood from the lungs into the left atrium, which passes it to the left ventricle for pumping to the body.

Q.8 [Biology]

Consider the following statements with reference to manure and organic farming :
1. Vermicompost is rich in organic matter and nutrients.
2. Biofertilizers and bio-pesticides are not used in organic farming.
3. Crop rotation is beneficial in controlling insects, pests and weeds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only ✓
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: (b) 1 and 3 only.
Organic farming relies on biofertilizers and bio-pesticides in place of synthetic chemicals, so statement 2 is wrong.

Q.9 [Biology]

Match List-I with List-II and select the answer using the codes given below the Lists :

List-I (Structure / Organelle)	List-II (Function)
A. Mitochondria	1. Maintenance of cell shape
B. Cytoskeleton	2. Detoxification in liver cells
C. Smooth ER	3. Storage of chemicals and cell enlargement
D. Vacuoles	4. Cellular respiration

Codes: A B C D

(a) 4 2 1 3
(b) 4 1 2 3 ✓
(c) 3 1 2 4
(d) 3 2 1 4

Solution: (b) 4 1 2 3.
Mitochondria respire, the cytoskeleton holds shape, smooth ER detoxifies drugs in liver cells, and vacuoles store substances and drive cell enlargement.

Q.10 [Biology]

Which one among the following pairs of diseases and their types is not correctly matched?

(a) Polio — Viral disease
(b) Athlete's foot — Fungal disease
(c) Dengue fever — Non-viral disease ✓
(d) Whooping cough — Bacterial disease

Solution: (c) Dengue is caused by a flavivirus carried by Aedes mosquitoes — a viral disease.

Q.11 [Physics]

Which one of the following statements qualitatively explains the second law of motion?

(a) The rate of change of angular momentum of a body is equal to the applied force.
(b) The rate of change of displacement of a body is directly proportional to the applied force.
(c) The rate of change of acceleration of a body is directly proportional to the applied force.
(d) The rate of change of momentum of a body is equal to the applied force. ✓

Solution: (d) Newton's second law: F = dp/dt — the applied force equals the rate of change of momentum (rate of change of angular momentum equals torque, not force).

Q.12 [Physics]

Which one of the following gives the triple point of water?

(a) Temperature 273·16 K and Pressure 1 Pa
(b) Temperature 273·16 K and Pressure 6·11 × 10² Pa ✓
(c) Temperature 0 K and Pressure 10⁵ Pa
(d) Temperature 373 K and Pressure 6·11 × 10² Pa

Solution: (b) Ice, water and vapour coexist at 273·16 K (0·01 °C) and 611 Pa, about 0·006 atm.

Q.13 [Physics]

Which one among the following has the least coefficient of thermal conductivity?

(a) H₂ ✓
(b) H₂O
(c) Cu
(d) Al

Solution: (a) Gases conduct heat worst: hydrogen about 0·18 W/m·K against about 0·6 for water, 237 for aluminium and 400 for copper.

Q.14 [Computers]

Which one among the following generation computers used microprocessors in their hardware technology?

(a) Second Generation
(b) Third Generation
(c) Fourth Generation ✓
(d) Fifth Generation

Solution: (c) Fourth-generation computers (from the 1970s) are built around the microprocessor; the second used transistors and the third integrated circuits.

Q.15 [Physics]

An X-ray beam can be deflected by :

(a) An electric field
(b) A magnetic field
(c) An electric as well as a magnetic field
(d) Neither an electric field nor a magnetic field ✓

Solution: (d) X-rays are electromagnetic waves with no charge, so neither field deflects them — unlike cathode rays.

Q.16 [Physics]

An object is placed at a distance of 15 cm in front of a concave mirror with a radius of curvature of 20 cm. Which one among the following statements is correct for the image formed?

(a) The image is 30 cm from the mirror on the same side as the object. ✓
(b) The image is formed at a distance of 30 cm behind the mirror.
(c) The image is 60 cm from the mirror on the same side as the object.
(d) The image is formed at a distance of 60 cm behind the mirror.

Solution: (a) f = R/2 = 10 cm. With u = −15: 1/v = 1/f − 1/u = −1/10 + 1/15 = −1/30, so v = −30 cm — a real image 30 cm in front of the mirror.

Q.17 [Physics]

Which one among the following statements regarding the electrical resistivity of a conducting wire is correct?

(a) The resistivity of the conductor increases if the length of the wire is increased.
(b) The resistivity of the conductor decreases if the length of the wire is increased.
(c) The resistivity of the conductor remains the same if the length of the wire is changed. ✓
(d) The resistivity of the conductor increases if the cross-sectional area of the wire is increased.

Solution: (c) Resistivity is a property of the material (and temperature). Length and area change the resistance, not the resistivity.

Q.18 [Physics]

Which one among the following statements related to electric cells is correct?

(a) A primary cell is rechargeable.
(b) A secondary cell can be used only once.
(c) The emf of a battery is the power provided by the battery per unit current. ✓
(d) The unit of emf is Joule.

Solution: (c) emf = energy per unit charge = P/I, so it is power per unit current; its unit is the volt. Primary cells are not rechargeable; secondary cells are.

Q.19 [Physics]

An object is launched horizontally from a height of 45 m above the ground with a speed of 10 m/s. The time at which the object will hit the ground is : (Take g = 10 m/s²)

(a) 6 s
(b) 4 s
(c) 3 s ✓
(d) 2 s

Solution: (c) Horizontal speed does not affect fall time: t = √(2h/g) = √(90/10) = 3 s.

Q.20 [Physics]

Consider the following statements regarding waves :
1. If the particles of a medium move along the direction of motion of the wave, the wave is called a longitudinal wave.
2. If the particles of a medium move perpendicular to the direction of motion of the wave, the wave is called a transverse wave.
3. Transverse waves may involve change in the shape of the medium, whereas longitudinal waves involve change in the density of the medium.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 ✓

Solution: (d) 1, 2 and 3.
All three are textbook definitions: transverse waves need shear (shape change) and so travel only in solids, longitudinal waves travel as compressions and rarefactions (density change).

Q.21 [Chemistry]

Match List-I with List-II and select the answer using the codes given below the Lists :

List-I (Symbol of Element)	List-II (Group of Element)
A. Sm	1. Transition Elements
B. Cs	2. Alkali Metals
C. Os	3. Actinoid Elements
D. Np	4. Lanthanoid Elements

Codes: A B C D

(a) 4 2 1 3 ✓
(b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 3 1 2 4
(d) 3 2 1 4

Solution: (a) 4 2 1 3.
Samarium is a lanthanoid, caesium an alkali metal, osmium a transition metal and neptunium an actinoid.

Q.22 [Chemistry]

Consider the following statements regarding matter :
1. Elements cannot be broken down into simpler substances.
2. A compound has variable composition and can be broken down into elements.
3. The solution of sulphur in carbon disulphide is an example of a homogeneous mixture.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

(a) 2 only ✓
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 2

Solution: (a) 2 only.
A compound has a fixed composition by mass. Elements are indeed irreducible chemically, and sulphur dissolved in CS₂ is a true (homogeneous) solution.

Q.23 [Chemistry]

Consider the following statements :
1. Concentrated H₂SO₄ is used as a dehydrating agent in esterification reaction.
2. The hydrophilic part of soap is oil and it dissolves in water.
3. Nickel is used as a catalyst in converting vegetable oil into fat.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only ✓

Solution: (d) 1 and 3 only.
The hydrophilic part of a soap molecule is the ionic carboxylate head, not oil — the hydrocarbon tail is what dissolves in oil. Statements 1 and 3 are correct (hydrogenation of oils uses a nickel catalyst).

Q.24 [Chemistry]

Which one among the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(a) Nitrogen : Three unpaired electrons
(b) Carbon : Tetravalent
(c) Chlorine : Two stable isotopic forms
(d) Helium : Diatomic gas ✓

Solution: (d) Helium is a noble gas and exists as single atoms (monatomic). Nitrogen (2p³) has three unpaired electrons and chlorine has Cl-35 and Cl-37.

Q.25 [Chemistry]

Consider the following statements :
1. Packaged foods are purged with nitrogen gas in order to prevent their oxidation.
2. Tooth decay starts when pH of the mouth is lower than 5·5.
3. The reactivity of metals decreases in the order : Mg > Fe > Zn.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 3 only ✓

Solution: (d) 3 only.
In the reactivity series zinc is above iron: Mg > Zn > Fe. Nitrogen flushing of packets and the 5·5 pH threshold for enamel are correct.

Q.26 [Chemistry]

Which one among the following pairs of compound and chemical formula is not correctly matched?

(a) Bleaching powder : CaOCl₂
(b) Soda ash : Na₂CO₃
(c) Baking powder : NaHCl₃ ✓
(d) Plaster of Paris : 2CaSO₄.H₂O

Solution: (c) Baking powder is a mixture of baking soda (NaHCO₃) and a mild acid such as tartaric acid; 'NaHCl₃' is not a real formula.

Q.27 [Chemistry]

Consider the following statements :
1. The temporary hardness in water is due to the presence of bicarbonates of calcium.
2. The permanent hardness in water is due to the presence of soluble chlorides and sulphates of calcium and magnesium.
3. The permanent hardness in water is removed by adding Na₂CO₃ to water.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 ✓

Solution: (d) 1, 2 and 3.
Washing soda precipitates the Ca and Mg ions as insoluble carbonates, removing permanent hardness; temporary hardness (bicarbonates) goes on boiling.

Q.28 [Chemistry]

Which one among the following statements regarding micelles is not correct?

(a) Soap molecules are sodium or potassium salts of long-chain carboxylic acids.
(b) Micelles precipitate out of solution because of ion-ion repulsion. ✓
(c) Grease gets collected in the centre of the micelle.
(d) Soap micelles scatter light.

Solution: (b) It is the opposite: ion-ion repulsion between the charged heads keeps micelles apart and in solution, which is why they do not precipitate.

Q.29 [Chemistry]

Consider the following statements regarding bases and alkalis :
1. All bases dissolve in water.
2. Bases which are soluble in water are called alkalis.
3. An alkali is soapy to touch, bitter and corrosive.
4. Addition of water to an alkali generates heat.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only ✓
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 3 and 4 only

Solution: (b) 2, 3 and 4 only.
Many bases (Cu(OH)₂, Fe(OH)₃) are insoluble; only the soluble ones are alkalis. Dissolving an alkali such as NaOH is strongly exothermic.

Q.30 [Chemistry]

Which of the following statements relating to the Modern Periodic Table is/are correct?
1. The atomic radius increases on moving from left to right across a period.
2. Germanium, Tellurium, and Copper are transition metals.
3. The two isotopes of Chlorine occupy the same position in the periodic table.
4. The metallic property of Ca, Ba, Be and Sr follows the order : Be < Ca < Sr < Ba.
Select the answer using the codes given below :

(a) 3 only
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4 ✓

Solution: (d) 3 and 4.
Radius decreases across a period; germanium and tellurium are metalloids, not transition metals. Isotopes share a position, and metallic character grows down Group 2.

Q.31 [Computers]

Which of the following computer languages is/are assembly language(s)?
1. Python
2. Java
3. x86
4. MIPS
Select the answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only ✓
(d) 1, 3 and 4

Solution: (c) 3 and 4 only.
x86 and MIPS are processor architectures, each with its own assembly language. Python and Java are high-level languages.

Q.32 [Computers]

Which one of the following is not a characteristic of flash memory?

(a) It is an ultraviolet erasable programmable ROM. ✓
(b) It is an electrically erasable programmable ROM.
(c) It retains data without power.
(d) It is a non-volatile memory.

Solution: (a) Flash is a form of EEPROM, erased electrically in blocks. UV-erasable chips are the older EPROMs with a quartz window.

Q.33 [Computers]

Which one of the following statements is not correct with regard to the UNIX operating system?

(a) It is written in C.
(b) It is portable to a variety of computers.
(c) It is a multi-user operating system.
(d) It cannot be time-shared by several users. ✓

Solution: (d) UNIX is a multi-user, multitasking, time-sharing system — several users share the processor at once.

Q.34 [Computers]

In MP3 compression scheme, 60 minutes of music can be stored in about :

(a) 600 MB
(b) 200 MB
(c) 50 MB ✓
(d) 10 MB

Solution: (c) At the usual 128 kbps, an hour of MP3 is 128 × 3600 / 8 ≈ 57 MB — roughly a tenth of the 600 MB that an uncompressed audio CD needs.

Q.35 [Computers]

Code Division Multiple Access (CDMA) technology is primarily used in :

(a) Mobile phone communication ✓
(b) X-ray
(c) Artificial Intelligence
(d) Colour Xerox

Solution: (a) CDMA is a channel-access method that lets many mobile users share the same frequency band, each with a unique code (used in 2G/3G cellular networks).

Q.36 [Economy]

Which one of the following items comprises the major portion of Revenue Expenditure in Budget 2025 – 26 of the Union Government of India?

(a) Pension
(b) Interest Payments ✓
(c) Road Transport and Highways
(d) Defence Services

Solution: (b) Interest payments (about ₹12·8 lakh crore, roughly a quarter of total expenditure) are the single largest item of the Union's revenue expenditure.

Q.37 [Economy]

Consider the following statements with respect to Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) :
1. PMFBY provides risk insurance to farmers against crop damage due to non-preventable natural risks.
2. PMFBY provides risk coverage of ₹2 lakh in case of death of the insured.
3. PMFBY ensures flow of credit to the agriculture sector.
4. PMFBY provides risk coverage of ₹2 lakh for complete disability of the insured.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 ✓
(d) 1 and 4

Solution: (c) 1 and 3.
PMFBY insures crops and, as a stated objective, keeps credit flowing to agriculture. The ₹2 lakh death/disability cover belongs to PM Suraksha Bima Yojana.

Q.38 [Economy]

Which of the following statements with respect to the Gender Inequality Index (GII) is/are correct?
1. GII reflects gender-based disadvantage in work participation, property and income dimensions.
2. GII reflects gender-based disadvantage in reproductive health, empowerment and the labour market dimensions.
3. The value of GII ranges from 0 to 1, with a GII of 0 indicating women and men faring equally in all dimensions.
Select the answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only ✓
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: (c) 2 and 3 only.
UNDP's GII has three dimensions — reproductive health, empowerment and the labour market — and runs from 0 (equality) to 1.

Q.39 [Economy]

The Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) is measured by :

(a) Measuring each person's overlapping deprivations across the indicators in the health, education and standard of living dimensions ✓
(b) Measuring each person's separate efficiencies across the indicators in the wealth, income and standard of living dimensions
(c) Measuring each person's poverty on the indicators of health, happiness and ownership of vehicles
(d) Measuring inequalities and deprivations in respect of wealth, income and standard of living dimensions

Solution: (a) The MPI counts overlapping deprivations a person faces across health, education and standard of living — ten indicators in the global index, twelve in NITI Aayog's national MPI.

Q.40 [Economy]

The financial instruments that generate proceeds for investment in environmentally sustainable and climate-suitable projects are called as :

(a) Green Bonds ✓
(b) Carbon Bonds
(c) Climate Credit Bonds
(d) Social Impact Bonds

Solution: (a) Green bonds raise money earmarked for climate and environmental projects; India issued its first sovereign green bonds in January 2023.

Q.41 [Economy]

Which one among the following sectors is included in the list of the Sunrise Sectors in India?

(a) Manufacturing Sector
(b) Food Processing Sector ✓
(c) Textile Sector
(d) Services Sector

Solution: (b) Food processing is the sector the Government consistently describes as a 'sunrise sector' — high growth, large employment potential and a link between farm and industry.

Q.42 [International Relations]

Which of the following countries were the founding members of the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC), established in 1985?
1. India
2. Nepal
3. Maldives
4. Afghanistan
Select the answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only ✓
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: (b) 1, 2 and 3 only.
SAARC began at Dhaka in December 1985 with seven members including India, Nepal and Maldives; Afghanistan joined as the eighth member in 2007.

Q.43 [Economy]

The Government of India has announced a 6-year Mission for Aatmanirbharta (Self-reliance) in Pulses with a special focus to ensure 100 percent procurement at MSP of :

(a) Urad, Soyabean and Masoor
(b) Tur, Urad and Masoor ✓
(c) Masoor, Chana and Tur
(d) Moong, Tur and Soyabean

Solution: (b) The ₹11,440-crore mission (2025-26 to 2030-31) guarantees MSP procurement of all tur, urad and masoor offered by registered farmers through NAFED and NCCF.

Q.44 [Economy]

Which one among the following statements correctly defines the Infant Mortality Rate (IMR)?

(a) IMR is the average number of infants born to a woman over her lifetime.
(b) IMR is the average number of infants born in a year per 1000 deaths before attaining one year of age.
(c) IMR is the number of deaths of infants under one year old per 1000 live births in a year. ✓
(d) IMR is the number of deaths of infants under one year of age per year.

Solution: (c) IMR = infant deaths (under one year) per 1,000 live births in a year. Option (a) describes the total fertility rate.

Q.45 [Polity]

Which one of the following indexes is used to assess the state of governance across the States and UTs?

(a) Sustainable Governance Index
(b) E-Governance Index
(c) Urban Governance Index
(d) Good Governance Index ✓

Solution: (d) The Good Governance Index, prepared by the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances, ranks States and UTs across sectors such as agriculture, industry, public health and the judiciary.

Q.46 [History]

Swami Vivekananda's speech in the World Parliament of Religions at Chicago in 1893 opened with which of the following words?

(a) Sisters and brothers of America ✓
(b) Dear citizens of the world
(c) Brothers and sisters of the world
(d) Esteemed brothers and sisters

Solution: (a) His opening words on 11 September 1893, 'Sisters and brothers of America', drew a standing ovation.

Q.47 [History]

Who among the following was called by Gandhiji as his Rajya Guru in May, 1915?

(a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(b) Gopal Krishna Gokhale ✓
(c) G.G. Agarkar
(d) Dadabhai Naoroji

Solution: (b) Gandhi regarded Gokhale as his political guru; on Gokhale's advice he spent a year touring India after returning in 1915.

Q.48 [History]

With reference to the Swadeshi Movement, consider the following statements :
1. The Swadeshi Movement had its genesis in the Anti-Partition movement, which was started to oppose the British decision to partition Bengal.
2. Aurobindo Ghosh was in favour of extending the movement to the rest of India and carrying it beyond the programme of just Swadeshi and Boycott to a full-fledged political mass struggle.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (c) Both.
The movement grew out of the 1905 anti-partition agitation, and the Extremists — Tilak, Bipin Chandra Pal, Lajpat Rai and Aurobindo — wanted it carried across India as a mass political struggle for swaraj.

Q.49 [History]

With reference to the Junagadh inscription of Rudradaman, consider the following statements :
1. The script of this inscription is Kharosthi and the language is Prakrit.
2. The inscription records the restoration of a reservoir called Sudarshana Lake.
3. It is an undated inscription.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only ✓
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: (b) 2 only.
The inscription is in Brahmi script and chaste Sanskrit — the earliest long Sanskrit inscription — and is dated Saka year 72 (c. 150 CE). It records the repair of Sudarshana lake, originally built under Chandragupta Maurya.

Q.50 [History]

The Bower Manuscript is known for being a valuable source on which one of the following subjects in ancient India?

(a) Medicine ✓
(b) Mathematics
(c) Astronomy
(d) Chemistry

Solution: (a) The birch-bark Bower Manuscript (c. 5th century CE, found near Kucha) contains Sanskrit medical treatises, including recipes and uses of garlic.

Q.51 [History]

Who among the following was the only Indian member to be present when the Vernacular Press Bill came up before the Legislative Council?

(a) Jotendra Mohan Tagore ✓
(b) Peary Mohan Mukherjea
(c) Dinshaw Petit
(d) Dadabhai Naoroji

Solution: (a) Maharaja Jotendra Mohan Tagore was the sole Indian member present when Lytton's Vernacular Press Act was rushed through the Council in a single sitting in March 1878.

Q.52 [History]

With reference to the Ranigumpha Cave (Odisha), consider the following statements :
1. Ranigumpha Cave is plain and contains no murals or sculptures.
2. Ranigumpha Cave is two-storeyed.
3. Ranigumpha Cave consists of an oval courtyard.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only ✓
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: (b) 2 only.
Rani Gumpha at Udayagiri is a double-storeyed cave built around three sides of a rectangular quadrangle, and it is the most richly sculptured cave of the group, with friezes of royal processions, hunts and dancers.

Q.53 [History]

The Mesolithic site of Bagor is one of the most well-documented sites. It is located in :

(a) Rajasthan ✓
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Haryana
(d) Punjab

Solution: (a) Bagor lies on the Kothari river in Bhilwara district, Rajasthan — one of the largest Mesolithic sites, with microliths and early evidence of animal domestication.

Q.54 [History]

Extensive pit-dwellings have been identified at the two Neolithic sites of :

(a) Piklihal and Maski
(b) Chirand and Tekkalkota
(c) Kodekal and Hallur
(d) Burzahom and Gufkral ✓

Solution: (d) At Burzahom and Gufkral in the Kashmir valley, Neolithic people lived in pits dug into the ground, with dog burials alongside their masters.

Q.55 [History]

The Chalcolithic Ahar Culture has been identified in which of the following river systems?

(a) Sarayu and Ganga river systems
(b) Krishna and Tungabhadra river systems
(c) Banas and Berach river systems ✓
(d) Brahmaputra and Meghna river systems

Solution: (c) The Ahar–Banas culture of south-eastern Rajasthan (sites like Ahar, Gilund, Balathal) flourished along the Banas and Berach rivers.

Q.56 [History]

Which one of the following is a Neolithic site?

(a) Bhimbetka
(b) Utnur ✓
(c) Adamgarh
(d) Birbhanpur

Solution: (b) Utnur in Telangana is a Neolithic ash-mound site of cattle keepers. Bhimbetka, Adamgarh and Birbhanpur are Mesolithic microlithic sites.

Q.57 [History]

During the period 100 BCE – 200 CE, valuable evidence of India's maritime trade links has been identified from which of the following sites on the Coromandel Coast?

(a) Arikamedu ✓
(b) Tamralipti
(c) Bharukachcha
(d) Muchiri

Solution: (a) Arikamedu near Puducherry yielded Roman amphorae, Arretine ware and coins. Tamralipti is in Bengal, Bharukachcha (Bharuch) and Muchiri (Muziris) are west-coast ports.

Q.58 [History]

Consider the following statements about the Gupta administrative system :
1. The Gupta kings assumed imperial titles such as Maharajadhiraja, Parama-bhattaraka and Parameshvara.
2. The Gupta kings also connected themselves with the Gods through epithets such as Parama-daivata and Parama-bhagavata.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (c) Both.
Gupta inscriptions use the imperial titles Maharajadhiraja, Parama-bhattaraka and Parameshvara, and the devotional epithets Parama-bhagavata (devotee of Vishnu) and Parama-daivata.

Q.59 [History]

Who was the author of the book of travels, called Rihla, written in Arabic, providing extremely rich and interesting details about India?

(a) Al-Biruni
(b) Ibn Battuta ✓
(c) Francois Bernier
(d) Nizamuddin Ahmad

Solution: (b) The Moroccan traveller Ibn Battuta, qazi of Delhi under Muhammad bin Tughlaq, recorded his journeys in the Rihla.

Q.60 [History]

The twelfth century witnessed the emergence of a new movement in Karnataka, led by Basavanna (1106-68 CE) who was a minister in the court of a Kalachuri ruler. His followers were known as :

(a) Virashaivas ✓
(b) Pushtimargis
(c) Avadhoots
(d) Nathpanthis

Solution: (a) Basavanna's followers, the Virashaivas or Lingayats, worshipped Shiva in the form of the linga and rejected caste and Brahmanical ritual.

Q.61 [History]

With reference to the Industrial Revolution, consider the following statements :
1. The Industrial Revolution saw the replacement of handicrafts by power-driven machinery.
2. The industrialised countries became dependent upon other countries for the supply of raw materials necessary for their industries.
3. Large-scale production started with the help of machinery in factories.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 ✓

Solution: (d) 1, 2 and 3.
Machines replaced handicrafts, production moved to factories, and the search for raw materials (cotton, rubber, minerals) tied the industrial nations to colonies and other suppliers.

Q.62 [History]

Which of the pairs of Ashokan inscription and location is/are correctly matched?
1. Jaugada : Karnataka
2. Bahapur : New Delhi
3. Rajula-Mandagiri : Andhra Pradesh
Select the answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only ✓

Solution: (d) 2 and 3 only.
Jaugada (a Major Rock Edict site) is in Ganjam district, Odisha. Bahapur is the Delhi rock edict near Srinivaspuri, and Rajula-Mandagiri is a Minor Rock Edict site in Kurnool, Andhra Pradesh.

Q.63 [History]

With reference to the Indo-Roman trade in ancient India, the term 'aurei' refers to :

(a) Perfume
(b) Wine
(c) Black Pepper
(d) Coins ✓

Solution: (d) The aureus (plural aurei) was the Roman gold coin; hoards of aurei in south India testify to the trade that Pliny complained drained Rome's gold.

Q.64 [History]

Basohli, a bold and intense style of miniature painting, is associated with which one of the following regions of India?

(a) Bihar
(b) Chhattisgarh
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Himachal Pradesh ✓

Solution: (d) Basohli is the earliest school of Pahari painting, from the hill states of the western Himalaya; of the options only Himachal Pradesh belongs to that Pahari region (the town itself lies in the Jammu hills).

Q.65 [History]

Which of the following factors was/were responsible for the rise of Magadha as the most powerful Mahajanapada during the 6th century BCE?
1. Region of productive agriculture
2. Accessibility to iron-mines
3. Availability of elephants in the region
Select the answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 ✓

Solution: (d) 1, 2 and 3.
Fertile Gangetic land, the iron ores of south Bihar for tools and weapons, forest elephants for the army, and river routes all gave Magadha its edge.

Q.66 [Geography]

Which of the following pairs of theories about origin of the Earth and their propounders is/are correctly matched?
1. Gaseous Hypothesis : Kant
2. Binary Star Hypothesis : Russell
3. Planetesimal Hypothesis : Chamberlin
Select the answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 ✓

Solution: (d) 1, 2 and 3.
Kant's gaseous (nebular) hypothesis, H.N. Russell's binary star hypothesis and Chamberlin–Moulton's planetesimal hypothesis are all correctly paired.

Q.67 [Geography]

Which one among the following statements regarding igneous rock is correct?

(a) When magma cools deep in the Earth's interior, it results in the formation of fine-grained igneous rocks.
(b) Basalt is a type of intrusive igneous rock.
(c) Most of the minerals of igneous rocks are silicates. ✓
(d) Extrusive igneous rocks often undergo lithification.

Solution: (c) Igneous rocks are dominated by silicate minerals (feldspar, quartz, mica, pyroxene). Slow deep cooling gives coarse grains, basalt is extrusive, and lithification is how sediments become rock.

Q.68 [Geography]

Consider the following statements regarding metamorphic rocks :
1. Ortho-metamorphic rocks are formed from igneous rocks.
2. Intense heat of the intruding magmas results in metamorphism of the surrounding rocks, a process known as dynamic metamorphism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only ✓
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (a) 1 only.
Ortho-metamorphic rocks derive from igneous parents (para- from sedimentary). Heat from intruding magma causes contact (thermal) metamorphism; dynamic metamorphism is caused by pressure and stress.

Q.69 [Geography]

Consider the following statements regarding Volcanic Cones :
1. During volcanic eruptions, acid lava cones are formed by highly viscous lavas.
2. Viscous lavas have high mobility and can travel for long distances.
3. Acid lavas result in the formation of high cones with steep slopes.
4. Composite cones are the highest volcanic cones.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only ✓
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: (c) 1, 3 and 4 only.
Viscous acid lava barely flows, so it piles up into steep, high cones; it is basic lava that is mobile and spreads far. Composite (strato-) cones such as Fuji are the highest.

Q.70 [Geography]

Consider the following statements about Mechanical Weathering :
1. More compact and highly consolidated rocks are least affected by freeze-thaw weathering.
2. Shattering of rocks is more common in hot deserts.
3. Crystalline rocks are often prone to exfoliation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 ✓

Solution: (d) 1, 2 and 3.
Frost wedging needs joints and pores, so massive rocks resist it; daily heating and cooling shatters desert rocks; granite and other crystalline rocks peel in sheets (exfoliation).

Q.71 [Geography]

Consider the following statements about the causes of ground surface inversion of temperature :
1. Ground surface inversion is also termed as radiation inversion.
2. The existence of negative lapse rate results in surface inversion.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (c) Both.
On clear calm nights the ground radiates heat away and chills the air touching it, so temperature rises with height — a negative lapse rate — which is the surface or radiation inversion.

Q.72 [Geography]

Match List-I with List-II and select the answer using the codes given below the Lists :

List-I (Forest type)	List-II (Specie)
A. Tropical Moist Forest	1. Kail
B. Littoral and Swamp Forest	2. Khair
C. Tropical Thorn Forest	3. Sonneratia
D. Alpine Forest	4. Rosewood

Codes: A B C D

(a) 4 3 2 1 ✓
(b) 4 2 3 1
(c) 1 2 3 4
(d) 1 3 2 4

Solution: (a) 4 3 2 1.
Rosewood grows in tropical moist forests, Sonneratia is a mangrove of littoral swamps, khair is a thorn-forest acacia, and kail (blue pine) belongs to the Himalayan alpine zone.

Q.73 [Geography]

Consider the following statements regarding the Northwestern Himalayas :
1. Karewa formations in Kashmir consist of thick deposits of glacial clay and other materials embedded with moraines.
2. Pangong Tso and Tso Moriri in Ladakh are freshwater lakes.
3. River Jhelum exhibits meanders in the Kashmir Valley.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only ✓
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: (b) 1 and 3 only.
Pangong Tso and Tso Moriri are brackish (saline) lakes. The Karewas are lacustrine-glacial deposits famous for saffron, and the Jhelum meanders sluggishly across the valley floor.

Q.74 [Geography]

Consider the following statements about the types of drought in India :
1. A meteorological drought occurs when the mean annual rainfall is less than 75%.
2. Agricultural drought arises out of extreme moisture stress.
3. Soil moisture drought is related to meteorological drought.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 ✓

Solution: (d) 1, 2 and 3.
IMD defines meteorological drought as rainfall below 75% of normal; prolonged rainfall deficit depletes soil moisture, which in turn stresses crops (agricultural drought).

Q.75 [Geography]

Match List-I with List-II and select the answer using the codes given below the Lists :

List-I (Forest Research Institute)	List-II (Location)
A. Tropical Forest Research Institute	1. Prayagraj
B. Rain Forest Research Institute	2. Jorhat
C. Himalayan Forest Research Institute	3. Jabalpur
D. Forest Research Centre for Eco-Rehabilitation	4. Shimla

Codes: A B C D

(a) 1 2 4 3
(b) 1 4 2 3
(c) 3 2 4 1 ✓
(d) 3 4 2 1

Solution: (c) 3 2 4 1.
All four are ICFRE institutes: TFRI Jabalpur, RFRI Jorhat, HFRI Shimla and the Eco-Rehabilitation centre at Prayagraj.

Q.76 [Geography]

Which of the following statements about the Black Soils of India is/are correct?
1. Black Soils cover most of the Deccan Plateau.
2. Also known as 'Regur', they are generally clayey, deep and impermeable.
3. Since they are impermeable, rainfed crops do not grow well in Black Soils.
Select the answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only ✓
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Solution: (a) 1 and 2 only.
Because regur holds moisture so well, it is ideal for rainfed cotton and other dry-farming crops — statement 3 reverses the truth.

Q.77 [Geography]

Which one of the following rivers is also known by the name of "Dihang" in Northeast India?

(a) Dikhow
(b) Brahmaputra ✓
(c) Subansiri
(d) Teesta

Solution: (b) The Tsangpo enters Arunachal Pradesh as the Siang/Dihang and becomes the Brahmaputra after meeting the Dibang and Lohit near Sadiya.

Q.78 [Geography]

'Shipki La', a high altitude pass in the Himalayas, is located in :

(a) Chumbi Valley
(b) Brahmaputra Valley
(c) Satluj Valley ✓
(d) Teesta Valley

Solution: (c) Shipki La in Kinnaur, Himachal Pradesh, is the pass through which the Satluj enters India from Tibet.

Q.79 [Geography]

During chemical weathering, when minerals in feldspar change to kaolinite clays, the process is termed as :

(a) Carbonation ✓
(b) Chelation
(c) Hydration
(d) Oxidation

Solution: (a) Carbonic acid formed from CO₂ and water attacks feldspar and decomposes it into kaolin (china clay) — the carbonation (carbonic-acid) process described in physical geography texts.

Q.80 [Geography]

Which one among the following pairs of National Parks and locations is not correctly matched?

(a) Ranthambore : Rajasthan
(b) Gir : Gujarat
(c) Nandankanan : Odisha
(d) Keibul Lamjao : Arunachal Pradesh ✓

Solution: (d) Keibul Lamjao, the floating national park on Loktak lake and home of the sangai deer, is in Manipur.

Q.81 [Economy]

Which one among the following is the first and the oldest Government-owned coal mining company in India?

(a) Neyveli Lignite Corporation Limited
(b) Eastern Coalfields Limited
(c) Singareni Collieries Company Limited ✓
(d) Mahanadi Coalfields Limited

Solution: (c) Singareni Collieries (1920) became government-owned in 1945 and is today jointly held by Telangana and the Union Government — the oldest government coal company in India.

Q.82 [Geography]

Consider the following statements regarding ocean currents :
1. Difference in water density is the main cause for the formation of ocean currents.
2. Density of water depends on temperature, salinity and pressure.
3. As a rule, ocean waters move from areas of higher density to areas of lower density as a current.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 3 only ✓

Solution: (d) 2 and 3 only.
Prevailing winds are the main driver of surface currents; density differences drive the slower thermohaline circulation. Density does depend on temperature, salinity and pressure, and water moves from denser to less dense areas.

Q.83 [Geography]

Consider the following statements about the Sargasso Sea :
1. It is the only sea without a land boundary.
2. The Sargasso Sea records the lowest salinity in the Atlantic Ocean.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only ✓
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (a) 1 only.
Bounded only by currents of the North Atlantic gyre, the Sargasso Sea has high salinity (about 37‰) because of strong evaporation and little mixing.

Q.84 [Geography]

Match List-I with List-II and select the answer using the codes given below the Lists :

List-I (Type of Tide)	List-II (Characteristic)
A. Spring Tides	1. Low tides caused when the Sun, Earth and Moon are in the position of quadrature
B. Neap Tides	2. Occur when the Moon is the farthest from the Earth
C. Apogean Tides	3. Tides recurring at an interval of six months
D. Equinoctial Spring Tides	4. Very high tides caused when the Sun, Moon and Earth are almost in the same line

Codes: A B C D

(a) 3 1 2 4
(b) 3 2 1 4
(c) 4 2 1 3
(d) 4 1 2 3 ✓

Solution: (d) 4 1 2 3.
Spring tides come at syzygy (new and full moon), neap tides at quadrature, apogean tides when the Moon is at apogee, and the equinoctial spring tides of March and September are six months apart.

Q.85 [Geography]

Which of the following pairs of major sea ports of India and their characteristics are correctly matched?
1. Deendayal Port : Tidal Port
2. Jawaharlal Nehru Port : Landlocked Port
3. V.O. Chidambaranar Port : Artificial Deep-Sea Harbour
4. Paradip Port : Natural Shallow Water Port
Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 3 only ✓
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: (a) 1 and 3 only.
Deendayal (Kandla) is a tidal port in the Gulf of Kachchh and V.O. Chidambaranar (Tuticorin) is an artificial deep-sea harbour. Visakhapatnam is the land-locked port, and Paradip is an artificial deep-water port.

Q.86 [Defence]

Consider the following statements about the position of the Chief of Defence Staff :
1. He is the Head of the Department of Military Affairs within the Ministry of Defence.
2. He is the Permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee.
3. He does not exercise any military command over the three Service Chiefs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 ✓

Solution: (d) 1, 2 and 3.
The CDS heads the Department of Military Affairs as its Secretary, chairs the Chiefs of Staff Committee permanently, and is first among equals — he exercises no command over the Service Chiefs.

Q.87 [Defence]

Match List-I with List-II and select the answer using the codes given below the Lists :

List-I (Name of the Institution)	List-II (Type of Training)
A. Indian Military Academy	1. Training cadets for Short Service Commission
B. National Defence Academy	2. Training the persons joining the Army as officers
C. National Defence College	3. Training cadets of three services of Defence forces before inducting them into respective pre-commissioning training academies
D. Officers Training Academy	4. Training of selected senior officers of the armed forces and civil service officers

Codes: A B C D

(a) 1 3 4 2
(b) 1 4 3 2
(c) 2 3 4 1 ✓
(d) 2 4 3 1

Solution: (c) 2 3 4 1.
IMA Dehradun commissions Army officers, NDA Khadakwasla trains tri-service cadets before IMA/INA/AFA, NDC New Delhi trains senior officers and civil servants, and OTA Chennai trains Short Service Commission cadets.

Q.88 [Polity]

Which of the following statements about 'Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana' (SAGY) is/are correct?
1. It comes under the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs, Government of India.
2. It was launched in 2014 on the birth anniversary of Jayaprakash Narayan.
3. Mahatma Gandhi's vision of Gram Swaraj is the inspiration behind this scheme.
Select the answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only ✓
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 only

Solution: (b) 2 and 3 only.
SAGY, under which each MP adopts and develops villages, was launched on 11 October 2014 (JP's birth anniversary) by the Ministry of Rural Development, drawing on Gandhi's idea of Gram Swaraj.

Q.89 [Polity]

Consider the following former Presidents of India :
1. Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan
2. Dr. Zakir Hussain
3. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
How many of the above Presidents has/have also served as Vice-President of India?

(a) None
(b) 1
(c) 2 ✓
(d) 3

Solution: (c) 2.
Radhakrishnan (1952–62) and Zakir Husain (1962–67) were Vice-Presidents before becoming President. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy came to Rashtrapati Bhavan from the Speaker's chair.

Q.90 [Polity]

Which one among the following statements regarding the Fundamental Rights of the Constitution of India is not correct?

(a) They provide for equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
(b) They guarantee freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion.
(c) They prohibit discrimination on the grounds only of religion, race and caste. ✓
(d) They are legally enforceable.

Solution: (c) Article 15 prohibits discrimination on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth — the option leaves out two grounds.

Q.91 [Polity]

Consider the following statements regarding the amendment procedure under Article 368 of the Constitution of India :
1. Constitutional amendment bills can be introduced in either House of the Parliament.
2. Constitutional amendment bills should be passed in each House by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting.
3. All Constitutional amendment bills must be ratified by the Legislature of not less than one-half of the States.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only ✓
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: (a) 1 and 2 only.
Ratification by half the State legislatures is needed only for amendments touching the federal provisions listed in the proviso to Article 368(2), not for all amendments.

Q.92 [Polity]

Consider the following statements regarding the qualifications of a person for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court of India :
1. The person has to be, for at least five years, a Judge of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession.
2. The person has to be, for at least ten years, an advocate of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession.
3. The person is, in the opinion of the Chief Justice of India, a distinguished jurist.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only ✓
(d) 1 and 3 only

Solution: (c) 1 and 2 only.
Under Article 124(3) the 'distinguished jurist' must be so in the opinion of the President, not the Chief Justice.

Q.93 [Polity]

Which one among the following pairs of Article and Provision with reference to the Constitution of India is not correctly matched?

(a) Article 243A : Gram Sabha
(b) Article 243B : Constitution of Panchayats
(c) Article 243C : Composition of Panchayats
(d) Article 243D : Election to the Panchayats ✓

Solution: (d) Article 243D provides for reservation of seats in Panchayats; elections to Panchayats are dealt with by Article 243K (State Election Commission).

Q.94 [International Relations]

Consider the following statements with regard to the UN Peacekeeping Operation :
1. The power to authorize a Peacekeeping Operation is exclusively vested with the General Assembly.
2. UN Peacekeeping Operations are deployed with the consent of the main parties to the conflict.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only ✓
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (b) 2 only.
Peacekeeping missions are authorised by the Security Council. Consent of the parties, impartiality and non-use of force except in self-defence are the three basic principles.

Q.95 [Polity]

Which one among the following items is not included in the State List of the Constitution of India?

(a) Public Order
(b) Economic and Social Planning ✓
(c) Land
(d) Local Government

Solution: (b) Economic and social planning is entry 20 of the Concurrent List. Public order, land and local government are State subjects.

Q.96 [Polity]

Which one among the following pairs of Articles of the Constitution of India and special provisions given therein is not correctly matched?

(a) Article 371A : Special provision with respect to the State of Nagaland
(b) Article 371B : Special provision with respect to the State of Assam
(c) Article 371C : Special provision with respect to the State of Manipur
(d) Article 371D : Special provision with respect to the State of Sikkim ✓

Solution: (d) Article 371D concerns Andhra Pradesh (and Telangana); Sikkim's special provisions are in Article 371F.

Q.97 [Defence]

Which of the following are administered under the Ministry of Defence, Government of India?
1. Territorial Army
2. Hydrographic surveys and preparation of navigational charts
3. National Cadet Corps
4. All matters relating to Coast Guard Organization
Select the answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 ✓
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

Solution: (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4.
All four appear in the Allocation of Business Rules for the Ministry of Defence: the Territorial Army and NCC, the Navy's hydrographic surveys and charts, and the Coast Guard.

Q.98 [Polity]

Consider the following statements about the powers of the Governor of a State :
1. The Governor has the power to appoint the Advocate-General.
2. Advocate-General holds office during the pleasure of the Governor.
3. The members of the State Public Service Commission are appointed by the Governor.
4. The members of the State Public Service Commission can be removed by the President of India on the report of the Governor.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only ✓

Solution: (d) 1, 2 and 3 only.
Members of a State PSC are removed by the President on the report of the Supreme Court (Article 317), not of the Governor, who can only suspend them.

Q.99 [International Relations]

Which one of the following statements about BIMSTEC (Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral, Technical and Economic Cooperation) is not correct?

(a) Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal, Pakistan, Sri Lanka and Thailand are member-states of BIMSTEC. ✓
(b) Its secretariat is located in Dhaka.
(c) India is the lead country of its security sector.
(d) Thailand is the lead country of its connectivity sector.

Solution: (a) BIMSTEC has seven members — the five South Asian littorals plus Myanmar and Thailand. Pakistan is not a member.

Q.100 [Polity]

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Chaudhary Charan Singh founded Bharatiya Kranti Dal.
(b) Jagjivan Ram was a member of the Constituent Assembly.
(c) Morarji Desai was the Prime Minister of India from 1977 to 1980. ✓
(d) Jayaprakash Narayan was the founder General Secretary of the Congress Socialist Party.

Solution: (c) Morarji Desai was Prime Minister from March 1977 to July 1979; Charan Singh followed him until January 1980.

Q.101 [Polity]

Which one of the following Acts is correctly paired with the year of its enactment?

(a) The Consumer Protection Act : 2012
(b) The Right to Information Act : 2004
(c) The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act : 2006 ✓
(d) The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act : 2010

Solution: (c) The Forest Rights Act is of 2006. The RTI Act is of 2005, POCSO of 2012, and the Consumer Protection Acts of 1986 and 2019.

Q.102 [Polity]

Which of the following statements related to the National Commission for Backward Classes is/are correct?
1. It is a constitutional body.
2. The National Commission for Backward Classes Act, 1993 has been repealed.
3. The Secretary, Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, Government of India heads the Commission.
Select the answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only ✓
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 only

Solution: (a) 1 and 2 only.
The 102nd Amendment (2018) inserted Article 338B, making NCBC a constitutional body, and the 1993 Act was repealed. Its Chairperson is appointed by the President, not a ministry secretary.

Q.103 [Polity]

Which of the following acts/behaviour shall amount to 'sexual harassment' as per the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013?
1. Verbal remarks of sexual nature
2. Non-verbal conduct of sexual nature
3. Physical conduct of sexual nature
Select the answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 ✓
(d) 3 only

Solution: (c) 1, 2 and 3.
Section 2(n) of the POSH Act covers unwelcome physical, verbal or non-verbal conduct of a sexual nature, including advances, demands for favours and showing pornography.

Q.104 [Geography]

Which among the following tribes inhabit the Andaman and Nicobar Islands?
1. Onge
2. Jarawas
3. Sentinelese
Select the answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 ✓
(d) 1 and 3 only

Solution: (c) 1, 2 and 3.
The Onge (Little Andaman), Jarawa (South and Middle Andaman) and Sentinelese (North Sentinel) are all Negrito PVTGs of the Andaman Islands.

Q.105 [Polity]

Arrange the following dignitaries in the correct sequence with respect to their rank precedence, as per the 'Table of Precedence' approved by the President of India :
1. Chief Justice of India
2. Governors within their respective states
3. Former Presidents
4. Deputy Prime Minister
Select the answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1, 3, 4, 2
(b) 2, 3, 4, 1 ✓
(c) 1, 2, 4, 3
(d) 2, 3, 1, 4

Solution: (b) 2, 3, 4, 1.
In the Warrant of Precedence, Governors within their own States rank 4, former Presidents 5, the Deputy Prime Minister 5A and the Chief Justice of India 6.

Q.106 [Current Affairs]

Which of the following statements about the 'SMART VILLAGE' project, launched by the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) is/are correct?
1. This is a pilot project, which focuses on the integrated village development.
2. The distinctive aspect of this project is that CSIR is following the guiding principle of 'Land to Lab' in improving the condition of villages through indigenous technologies.
Select the answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 only ✓
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (a) 1 only.
CSIR's Smart Village pilot takes laboratory technologies to villages — its guiding principle is 'Lab to Land', the reverse of what statement 2 says.

Q.107 [Economy]

Which of the following measures has/have been undertaken by the Government of India for supporting the cotton exporters and the textile sector?
1. Credit Guarantee Scheme for Exporters (CGSE)
2. RBI Trade Relief 2025
3. Rebate of State and Central Taxes and Levies (RoSCTL) for cotton and cotton-based products
Select the answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1, 2 and 3 ✓
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 only

Solution: (a) 1, 2 and 3.
After the US tariff shock of 2025 the Cabinet approved the ₹20,000-crore CGSE (November 2025), the RBI issued its Trade Relief Measures Directions, 2025 with a repayment moratorium for exporters, and RoSCTL was extended for apparel and made-ups.

Q.108 [Economy]

Which of the following statements about Government programmes/schemes is/are correct?
1. Skill Training of Rural Youth (STRY) is a programme meant for improving skills of the rural youth in different thematic areas of agriculture.
2. Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana – National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY – NRLM) focuses on creating income generation opportunities for Self-Help Group (SHG) women.
3. Start-up Village Entrepreneurship Programme (SVEP) is meant for creating an enabling rural business development ecosystem for supporting all women except for those engaged with Self-Help Groups (SHGs).
Select the answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only ✓
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only

Solution: (b) 1 and 2 only.
SVEP, a sub-scheme of DAY-NRLM, supports enterprises of SHG members and their families — statement 3 excludes exactly the people it is meant for.

Q.109 [Economy]

Which one of the following schemes is not meant for the development of agriculture sector in India?

(a) Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maandhan Yojana (PM-KMY)
(b) Modified Interest Subvention Scheme (MISS)
(c) PM SVANidhi ✓
(d) National Food Security and Nutrition Mission

Solution: (c) PM SVANidhi gives collateral-free working-capital loans to street vendors (Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs). The other three are farm-sector schemes.

Q.110 [Current Affairs]

Which of the following statements is/are not correct?
1. The 3^rd WHO Global Summit on Traditional Medicine was held in New Delhi in December 2025.
2. The theme for the 11^th International Yoga Day 2025 was 'Yoga for One Earth, One Health'.
Select the answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 only ✓
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (a) 1 only.
The summit held in New Delhi on 17–19 December 2025 was the second WHO Global Summit on Traditional Medicine (the first was at Gandhinagar in 2023). The IDY 2025 theme is stated correctly.

Q.111 [Current Affairs]

Which one of the following statements about the bridges of India is not correct?

(a) Atal Setu, also known as the Mumbai Trans Harbour Link, is India's longest sea bridge.
(b) The Chenab bridge is the world's highest railway arch bridge.
(c) The Bhupen Hazarika Setu is built over the Lohit river.
(d) The New Pamban bridge is an arch bridge. ✓

Solution: (d) The New Pamban Bridge (2025) is India's first vertical-lift sea bridge — its central span rises to let ships pass. The other three statements are correct.

Q.112 [Current Affairs]

Which of the following statements about India's Green Energy target is/are correct?
1. ONGC Green has set a plan to achieve 10 GW of green energy capacity by 2030.
2. ONGC Green and IIM Nagpur have signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU), which aims at contributing to India's broader goal of achieving net zero emissions by 2050.
Select the answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 only ✓
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (a) 1 only.
ONGC Green targets 10 GW by 2030. Its December 2025 MoU with IIM Nagpur is framed around India's net-zero goal of 2070, not 2050.

Q.113 [Current Affairs]

In which one of the following cities of India was the PESA (Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas)) Mahotsav 2025 held?

(a) Visakhapatnam ✓
(b) Kochi
(c) Ranchi
(d) Raipur

Solution: (a) The Ministry of Panchayati Raj held the two-day PESA Mahotsav at Visakhapatnam on 23–24 December 2025, marking the anniversary of the PESA Act, 1996.

Q.114 [Current Affairs]

The Sujalam Bharat App, launched in December 2025, aims at :

(a) Monitoring irrigation facilities being provided to farmers
(b) Achieving the goal of cleaning river water
(c) Resolving the grievances related to drinking water-supply in the NCT of Delhi
(d) Transforming rural drinking water governance ✓

Solution: (d) Launched by the Jal Shakti Ministry with BISAG-N, the app puts every rural drinking-water scheme on a geo-referenced platform with a Sujal Gaon ID for transparent, community-monitored governance.

Q.115 [Current Affairs]

Operation Sagar Bandhu was launched by India to provide Search & Rescue and Humanitarian Assistance & Disaster Relief (HADR) support to which one of the following countries?

(a) Thailand
(b) Sri Lanka ✓
(c) Indonesia
(d) Vietnam

Solution: (b) Operation Sagar Bandhu (November–December 2025) sent Indian Navy ships, aircraft and NDRF teams to Sri Lanka after Cyclone Ditwah.

Q.116 [Current Affairs]

India and New Zealand have signed a Free Trade Agreement (FTA) in December 2025. In which of the following areas has cooperation under the FTA has been agreed upon between the two countries?
1. AYUSH
2. Audio-Visual tourism
3. Traditional knowledge system
4. Horticulture
Select the answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 ✓
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Solution: (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4.
The FTA concluded in December 2025 carries a first-of-its-kind cooperation chapter covering AYUSH, traditional knowledge, the audio-visual industry and tourism, and horticulture (centres of excellence for kiwifruit, apples and honey).

Q.117 [Economy]

Which one of the following statements is correct about the PM-MITRA scheme?

(a) Its goal is to develop at least one energy park, in every state of India.
(b) It aims at developing integrated textile parks in India. ✓
(c) Its goal is to open employment parks in every district of India.
(d) It aims at opening agro parks in India.

Solution: (b) PM Mega Integrated Textile Region and Apparel (PM-MITRA) parks — seven approved sites — bring spinning, weaving, processing and garmenting into one integrated textile park.

Q.118 [Current Affairs]

Who, amongst the following, was not a part of the Indian Squash team that won the first ever World Cup title at the SDAT Squash World Cup 2025?

(a) Joshna Chinnappa
(b) Anahat Singh
(c) Abhay Singh
(d) Arjun Erigaisi ✓

Solution: (d) Arjun Erigaisi is a chess grandmaster. India's winning squash squad at Chennai (December 2025) was Abhay Singh, Velavan Senthilkumar, Joshna Chinnappa and Anahat Singh.

Q.119 [Defence]

Defence Research and Development Organization (DRDO) and Rashtriya Raksha University (RRU) have signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) in December 2025. Which of the following statements is/are correct in the context of this MoU?
1. This MoU aims to foster collaboration in the areas of training and technology support for defence and internal security.
2. RRU is an institution of eminence under the Ministry of Education, Government of India.
Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only ✓
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (a) 1 only.
Rashtriya Raksha University, Gandhinagar, is an Institution of National Importance under the Ministry of Home Affairs.

Q.120 [Current Affairs]

Who among the following has recently scripted history by becoming the first Indian cricketer to secure 100 wickets and 1000 runs in T20 Internationals?

(a) Hardik Pandya ✓
(b) Ravindra Jadeja
(c) Axar Patel
(d) Washington Sundar

Solution: (a) Hardik Pandya reached the double on 14 December 2025 against South Africa at Dharamsala — the first Indian and the first pace-bowling all-rounder to do so.