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CDS II 2025 General Knowledge with Solutions

Exam: CDS Year: 2025 (Session II) Held on: 14 September 2025 Questions: 120 Marks: 100 Negative Marking: 1/3

Booklet series: Booklet Series A (ANFB-S-GKL). UPSC shuffles the option order between booklet series, so the option letters below apply to this series only. If you sat a different series, match the answer by its text, not by its letter.

Q.1 [International Relations]

Consider the following international events:
1. Signing of the Simla Agreement
2. Agra Summit between India and Pakistan
3. Signing of the SAARC Charter at the First SAARC Summit
4. India's first nuclear test
Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the above events?

(a) 1, 3, 4, 2
(b) 4, 1, 3, 2
(c) 1, 4, 3, 2 ✓
(d) 4, 1, 2, 3

Solution: (c) 1, 4, 3, 2.
Simla Agreement — July 1972; Pokhran-I, India's first nuclear test — May 1974; SAARC Charter signed at the first summit in Dhaka — December 1985; Agra Summit (Vajpayee–Musharraf) — July 2001.

Q.2 [Polity]

Which one of the following features is correct about the 'First Past the Post System' of election?

(a) A candidate who wins may not get the majority of votes ✓
(b) More than one representative may be elected from one constituency
(c) Voters vote for the party, not the candidate
(d) Every party gets seats in the legislature in proportion to percentage of votes that it gets

Solution: (a) Under FPTP the candidate with the most votes wins, even with far less than 50 per cent — a plurality, not a majority. Single-member constituencies, candidate-based voting and no proportionality rule out the other three (which describe proportional representation).

Q.3 [Polity]

Match List-I with List-II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I (Special provision in the Constitution of India)	List-II (State)
A. Article 371	1. Nagaland
B. Article 371-A	2. Gujarat
C. Article 371-B	3. Assam
D. Article 371-I	4. Goa

Code: A B C D

(a) 4 1 3 2
(b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 2 1 3 4 ✓
(d) 2 3 1 4

Solution: (c) 2 1 3 4.
Article 371 — Maharashtra and Gujarat (development boards for Vidarbha, Saurashtra, Kutch); 371-A — Nagaland; 371-B — Assam; 371-I — Goa.

Q.4 [Polity]

Which of the following statements as per the Constitution of India is/are correct?
1. Provision for the reservation of seats for women in the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha has been made vide 106th Amendment of the Constitution.
2. There are provisions for the reservation of seats for women in the Legislative Assemblies and Legislative Councils of the States.
3. There are provisions for the reservation of seats for women in Panchayats.
Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 only
(d) 3 only ✓

Solution: (d) 3 only.
The 106th Amendment (Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam, 2023) reserves one-third of seats for women in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies — not in the Rajya Sabha or Legislative Councils, so 1 and 2 are wrong. Article 243D (73rd Amendment) reserves seats for women in Panchayats — 3 is correct.

Q.5 [Polity]

Which one among the following pairs of Subjects and Lists under the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India is not correctly matched?

(a) Forest : Concurrent List
(b) Taxes on land and building : State List
(c) Insurance : Union List
(d) Census : Concurrent List ✓

Solution: (d) Census is Entry 69 of the Union List. Forests moved to the Concurrent List by the 42nd Amendment, taxes on lands and buildings are Entry 49 of the State List, and insurance is Entry 47 of the Union List.

Q.6 [Polity]

Which of the following statements with reference to the Preamble to the Constitution of India are correct?
1. The word 'secular' comes before the word 'socialist'.
2. The word 'justice' comes before the word 'equality'.
3. The word 'fraternity' comes after the word 'liberty'.
Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only ✓
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: (b) 2 and 3 only.
The Preamble reads "SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC" — socialist precedes secular, so 1 is wrong. The objectives run JUSTICE, LIBERTY, EQUALITY, FRATERNITY, which makes 2 and 3 correct.

Q.7 [Polity]

Which one of the following statements about 'Motions' in the Parliament of India is correct?

(a) A Motion of No-Confidence can be admissible against an individual minister in the Council of Ministers.
(b) A No-Confidence Motion must set out grounds on which it is based.
(c) Rajya Sabha is not empowered to entertain a motion of No-Confidence. ✓
(d) A Censure Motion need not be based on specific grounds or charges.

Solution: (c) Only the Lok Sabha, to which the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible (Article 75), can entertain a no-confidence motion. Such a motion is against the whole Council, needs no stated grounds, whereas a censure motion must state specific charges — so (a), (b) and (d) are the reverse of the rules.

Q.8 [Polity]

Part IV-A of the Constitution of India deals with which one of the following areas?

(a) Appointment of Members to Public Service Commissions
(b) Fundamental Duties ✓
(c) Functions of Public Service Commissions
(d) Provisions for the functioning of the State Governments

Solution: (b) Part IV-A (Article 51A) contains the Fundamental Duties, inserted by the 42nd Amendment in 1976.

Q.9 [Geography]

The 'Durand Line' is a border demarcation that separates which of the following countries?

(a) Afghanistan and Iran
(b) Afghanistan and Pakistan ✓
(c) India and Pakistan
(d) Afghanistan and China

Solution: (b) The Durand Line, drawn in 1893 between British India and Afghanistan, is today the Afghanistan–Pakistan border.

Q.10 [History]

Consider the following social movements:
1. Chipko Movement
2. Bardoli Satyagraha
3. Satyashodhak Samaj
Which one of the following is the correct chronological order (starting with the earliest) of the launch of the above social movements?

(a) 2, 1, 3
(b) 3, 1, 2
(c) 3, 2, 1 ✓
(d) 1, 2, 3

Solution: (c) 3, 2, 1.
Satyashodhak Samaj — Jyotirao Phule, 1873; Bardoli Satyagraha — Vallabhbhai Patel, 1928; Chipko Movement — Uttarakhand, 1973.

Q.11 [History]

Which one of the following statements about the Tashkent Agreement is correct?

(a) It was an agreement between India and the Soviet Union.
(b) It was an agreement between India and Pakistan. ✓
(c) It was an agreement that led to the formation of Bangladesh.
(d) It was an agreement between India and Mongolia.

Solution: (b) The Tashkent Agreement (January 1966) was signed by Lal Bahadur Shastri and Ayub Khan to end the 1965 India–Pakistan war; the Soviet Union hosted and mediated it.

Q.12 [Polity]

Which among the following is not a language listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India?

(a) Manipuri
(b) Gondi ✓
(c) Nepali
(d) Dogri

Solution: (b) Gondi is not among the 22 scheduled languages. Manipuri and Nepali were added in 1992 and Dogri in 2003.

Q.13 [History]

Which of the following can be considered a part of the ancient Indian Smriti Literature?
1. Puranas
2. Ramayana
3. Kalpa-Sutra
4. Vedas
Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only ✓
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only.
The Vedas are Shruti ("heard", revealed). Everything remembered and composed by human authors — the Puranas, the epics (Ramayana, Mahabharata) and the Vedangas such as the Kalpa-Sutras — is Smriti.

Q.14 [Polity]

Who among the following was India's first Woman Chief Minister?

(a) Sarojini Naidu
(b) Sucheta Kripalani ✓
(c) Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit
(d) Hansa Mehta

Solution: (b) Sucheta Kripalani became Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh in 1963. Sarojini Naidu was the first woman Governor (UP, 1947).

Q.15 [History]

Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. C. Rajagopalachari was the first recipient of the Bharat Ratna.
2. Pandit Deen Dayal Upadhyaya initiated the concept of 'Integral Humanism'.
Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (c) Both 1 and 2.
The Bharat Ratna was first conferred in 1954 on C. Rajagopalachari, S. Radhakrishnan and C.V. Raman, with Rajaji heading the list. Integral Humanism (Ekatma Manavavad) was propounded by Deen Dayal Upadhyaya in his 1965 lectures.

Q.16 [Current Affairs]

Which of the following pairs of Institute and their location is/are correctly matched?
1. Indian Institute of Advanced Study : Shimla
2. Indian Institute of Public Administration : New Delhi
3. Sushma Swaraj Institute of Foreign Service : Nainital
Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 ✓
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 only
(d) 2 only

Solution: (a) 1 and 2.
IIAS occupies the former Viceregal Lodge in Shimla and IIPA is on Indraprastha Estate, New Delhi. The Sushma Swaraj Institute of Foreign Service (renamed 2020) is at Jawaharlal Nehru Bhawan, New Delhi — not Nainital.

Q.17 [Culture]

Consider the following statements:
1. Erok Sim is a festival mainly celebrated by the Santhal community.
2. Sangken is a Buddhist festival celebrated in Arunachal Pradesh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (c) Both 1 and 2.
Erok Sim is the Santhal sowing festival held before the monsoon. Sangken is the Theravada Buddhist new-year water festival of the Khamti, Singpho and Tai communities of Arunachal Pradesh, celebrated in April.

Q.18 [Defence]

'Maitree' is a Joint Military Exercise between India and:

(a) Bangladesh
(b) Thailand ✓
(c) Malaysia
(d) Sri Lanka

Solution: (b) Exercise Maitree is the India–Thailand army exercise. India–Bangladesh is Sampriti, India–Malaysia is Harimau Shakti and India–Sri Lanka is Mitra Shakti.

Q.19 [Economy]

Which of the following criteria are specified for granting Special Category Status to States in India?
1. Hilly and difficult terrain
2. Economic and infrastructural backwardness
3. Strategic coastal zone
4. Sizeable share of tribal population
Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only ✓
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: (c) 1, 2 and 4 only.
The National Development Council criteria are hilly and difficult terrain, low population density or sizeable tribal population, strategic location along international borders, economic and infrastructural backwardness, and non-viable state finances. A coastal zone is not a criterion.

Q.20 [History]

Who among the following is the founder of the Congress Socialist Party?

(a) Acharya Narendra Dev ✓
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Motilal Nehru
(d) Asoka Mehta

Solution: (a) The Congress Socialist Party was founded in 1934 with Acharya Narendra Dev as president and Jayaprakash Narayan as general secretary. Asoka Mehta was an early member, not the founder.

Q.21 [Physics]

The rule to determine the direction of a current induced in a coil due to its rotation in a magnetic field is:

(a) Right-Hand Thumb Rule.
(b) Fleming's Left-Hand Rule.
(c) Fleming's Right-Hand Rule. ✓
(d) Hund's Rule.

Solution: (c) Fleming's right-hand rule gives the direction of induced current (generator); the left-hand rule gives the force on a current-carrying conductor (motor). Hund's rule belongs to atomic orbitals.

Q.22 [Physics]

A car travels a total distance L. It travels half the distance with speed v₁ and the other half with speed v₂. The average speed of the car is:

(a) (v₁ + v₂)/2
(b) 2v₁v₂/(v₁ + v₂) ✓
(c) (v₁ + v₂)L/2v₁v₂
(d) 0

Solution: (b) 2v₁v₂/(v₁ + v₂).
Time = L/2v₁ + L/2v₂ = L(v₁ + v₂)/2v₁v₂; average speed = L ÷ time = 2v₁v₂/(v₁ + v₂) — the harmonic mean, because the car spends more time at the slower speed.

Q.23 [Physics]

The linear momentum of a particle is conserved if:

(a) the net force on it is maximum.
(b) the net force on it is zero. ✓
(c) the net torque on it is zero.
(d) the net work done on it is maximum.

Solution: (b) Newton's second law, F = dp/dt: momentum stays constant only when the net external force is zero. Zero torque conserves angular momentum, not linear momentum.

Q.24 [Physics]

When a stone tied to a string is whirled in a circle, the work done on it by the string:

(a) is positive.
(b) is negative.
(c) is zero. ✓
(d) depends on the mass of the stone.

Solution: (c) The tension acts along the radius while the stone moves along the tangent; force and displacement are perpendicular, so the work done is zero.

Q.25 [Physics]

Assume 'A' does 500 J of work in 'x' minutes and 'B' does 1000 J of work in 20 minutes. If the power delivered by 'A' is P₁ and 'B' is P₂ and P₁ = 2P₂, then 'x', in minutes is:

(a) 10
(b) 5 ✓
(c) 20
(d) 25

Solution: (b) 5.
P₂ = 1000/20 = 50 J per minute, so P₁ = 100 J per minute. 500/x = 100 gives x = 5 minutes.

Q.26 [Physics]

A sound wave travelling at a speed of 330 m/s produces 20 crests and 20 troughs in 0.1 second. The wavelength of the sound wave is:

(a) 1.1 m
(b) 3.3 m
(c) 1.65 m ✓
(d) 2.2 m

Solution: (c) 1.65 m.
20 crests and 20 troughs are 20 complete waves in 0.1 s, so the frequency is 200 Hz. Wavelength = v/f = 330/200 = 1.65 m.

Q.27 [Physics]

An X-ray can be deflected:

(a) by a magnetic field.
(b) by an electric field.
(c) by both electric and magnetic field.
(d) neither by electric field nor by magnetic field. ✓

Solution: (d) X-rays are electromagnetic waves with no charge, so neither an electric nor a magnetic field deflects them — unlike cathode rays or alpha and beta particles.

Q.28 [Physics]

In a simple astronomical telescope, the objective and the eyepiece used respectively, are:

(a) a convergent lens and a divergent lens.
(b) a divergent lens and a divergent lens.
(c) a divergent lens and a convergent lens.
(d) a convergent lens and a convergent lens. ✓

Solution: (d) A refracting astronomical telescope uses two convex (converging) lenses — a long-focus objective and a short-focus eyepiece — giving an inverted, magnified image. The Galilean telescope is the one with a concave eyepiece.

Q.29 [Physics]

Twinkling of a star is due to:

(a) Interference of light
(b) Refraction of light ✓
(c) Polarization of light
(d) Diffraction of light

Solution: (b) Starlight is refracted by turbulent layers of the atmosphere whose density keeps changing, so the apparent position and brightness flicker. Planets, being extended sources, average this out and do not twinkle.

Q.30 [Physics]

Van de Graaff generator generates:

(a) electrostatic charge
(b) magnetic field
(c) high voltage low alternating current
(d) high voltage low direct current ✓

Solution: (d) A Van de Graaff machine accumulates charge on a hollow metal sphere to build potentials of millions of volts, delivering a small, unidirectional (direct) current — used to accelerate charged particles.

Q.31 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following metals is widely extracted by the electrolysis of its molten compound?

(a) Cu
(b) Au
(c) Sn
(d) Na ✓

Solution: (d) Sodium is too reactive to be reduced chemically; it is obtained by electrolysis of molten NaCl (Downs process). Copper, gold and tin are far less reactive and are extracted by reduction or found native.

Q.32 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following is not a property of 'graphene'?

(a) It is the thinnest material known so far.
(b) It is almost completely transparent.
(c) It is highly conducting.
(d) It is a wide band-gap semiconductor. ✓

Solution: (d) Graphene is a single atomic layer of carbon — the thinnest material, nearly transparent and an excellent conductor — precisely because it has a zero band gap. It is not a wide band-gap semiconductor.

Q.33 [Chemistry]

Why do plastics not degrade easily?

(a) They have strong ionic bonds.
(b) They have strong covalent bonds. ✓
(c) They have strong metallic bonds.
(d) They have very high melting points (> 500°C).

Solution: (b) Plastics are long-chain polymers held together by strong carbon–carbon covalent bonds that micro-organisms and weathering cannot easily break. Most plastics actually melt well below 500 °C.

Q.34 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following is the correct chemical formula of carboxylic acid?

(a) C₃H₇OH
(b) C₃H₈
(c) C₂H₅COOH ✓
(d) CH₃COCH₃

Solution: (c) Carboxylic acids carry the –COOH group: C₂H₅COOH is propanoic acid. C₃H₇OH is an alcohol, C₃H₈ is propane, and CH₃COCH₃ is acetone (a ketone).

Q.35 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following statements is not correct for benzene?

(a) Each carbon atom forms sigma bonds with two other carbon atoms with a bond angle of 120°.
(b) Delocalized electrons create a symmetrical 'cloud' of electrons above and below the plane.
(c) The length of C–C bonds is intermediate between single and double bonds.
(d) It has six isomers. ✓

Solution: (d) Benzene (C₆H₆) is a single planar hexagonal molecule with delocalised π electrons and six equal C–C bonds of 139 pm; it does not exist as six isomers.

Q.36 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following is not a nitrogen fertilizer?

(a) (NH₄)₂SO₄
(b) NH₄NO₃
(c) N₂ ✓
(d) (NH₂)₂CO

Solution: (c) Atmospheric N₂ is inert and cannot be taken up by plants. Ammonium sulphate, ammonium nitrate and urea, (NH₂)₂CO, all supply nitrogen in usable form.

Q.37 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following general electronic configurations correctly represent a transition metal element?

(a) (n − 2) d^1–10 ns²
(b) (n − 2) f^1–14 (n − 1) d^0–1 ns²
(c) ns² np⁶ nd^1–10
(d) (n − 1) d^1–10 ns^0–2 ✓

Solution: (d) Transition (d-block) elements fill the penultimate d subshell: (n − 1)d¹⁻¹⁰ ns⁰⁻². Option (b) is the f-block (lanthanoids/actinoids) configuration.

Q.38 [Chemistry]

Variable oxidation numbers are possible for:

(a) Sodium
(b) Calcium
(c) Iron ✓
(d) Lithium

Solution: (c) Iron, a transition metal, shows +2 and +3 states (FeO, Fe₂O₃). Sodium and lithium are fixed at +1 and calcium at +2.

Q.39 [Chemistry]

Which one of the following gas smells like a rotten egg?

(a) Ammonia
(b) Hydrogen sulphide ✓
(c) Acetylene
(d) Sulphur dioxide

Solution: (b) Hydrogen sulphide (H₂S), released when sulphur-containing organic matter decays, has the characteristic rotten-egg smell. Sulphur dioxide smells of burnt matches.

Q.40 [Chemistry]

The chemical reaction K₂SO₄ (aq.) + BaCl₂ (aq.) → 2KCl (aq.) + BaSO₄↓ (solid) is an example of:

(a) Addition reaction
(b) Displacement reaction
(c) Decomposition reaction
(d) Double displacement reaction ✓

Solution: (d) Two compounds exchange ions — K⁺ pairs with Cl⁻ and Ba²⁺ with SO₄²⁻ — and an insoluble precipitate of barium sulphate forms: a double displacement (precipitation) reaction.

Q.41 [Biology]

Which one among the following is the correct scheme followed for classification of animals?

(a) Class → Phylum → Order → Genus → Family → Species
(b) Phylum → Class → Family → Genus → Order → Species
(c) Order → Class → Phylum → Family → Species → Genus
(d) Phylum → Class → Order → Family → Genus → Species ✓

Solution: (d) The taxonomic hierarchy from broad to narrow is Kingdom → Phylum → Class → Order → Family → Genus → Species.

Q.42 [Biology]

Which one of the following is an example of airborne disease?

(a) Tuberculosis ✓
(b) Malaria
(c) Dengue
(d) Cholera

Solution: (a) Tuberculosis spreads through droplets coughed into the air. Malaria and dengue are mosquito-borne; cholera is water-borne.

Q.43 [Biology]

What are the four human blood types in ABO blood group typing?

(a) AO, BO, A and B
(b) A, B, AB and O ✓
(c) A, AB, BO and O
(d) AB, AO, B and O

Solution: (b) The ABO system has four groups — A, B, AB and O — decided by which antigens (A, B, both or neither) sit on the red cells.

Q.44 [Biology]

Which one of the following is not a part of the male reproductive system in human beings?

(a) Prostate gland
(b) Testis
(c) Cervix ✓
(d) Scrotum

Solution: (c) The cervix is the lower part of the uterus — female anatomy. Testes, scrotum and prostate are male.

Q.45 [Biology]

Which of the following are the different parts of a human brain?

(a) Forefront brain, Standard brain and Hind brain
(b) Fore brain, Median brain and Rear brain
(c) Fore brain, Mid brain and Hind brain ✓
(d) Precursor brain, Mean brain and Hind brain

Solution: (c) The brain is divided into the forebrain (cerebrum, thalamus, hypothalamus), midbrain and hindbrain (cerebellum, pons, medulla).

Q.46 [Biology]

Tooth enamel of humans is made up of:

(a) Calcium phosphate ✓
(b) Sodium hydrogen carbonate
(c) Sodium hydroxide
(d) Lactic acid

Solution: (a) Enamel, the hardest substance in the body, is largely calcium phosphate in the form of hydroxyapatite. Lactic acid from bacteria is what dissolves it.

Q.47 [Biology]

The inner lining of the human small intestine has numerous finger-like projections called:

(a) Sphincter
(b) Villi ✓
(c) Enzymes
(d) Plaques

Solution: (b) Villi (and the microvilli on them) multiply the absorptive surface of the small intestine many times over.

Q.48 [Biology]

Which of the following represent disaccharides?

(a) Starch and glycogen
(b) Glucose and galactose
(c) Maltose and lactose ✓
(d) Ribose and xylose

Solution: (c) Maltose (glucose + glucose) and lactose (glucose + galactose) are two-unit sugars. Glucose, galactose, ribose and xylose are monosaccharides; starch and glycogen are polysaccharides.

Q.49 [Biology]

Which one of the following organelles can be seen in a prokaryotic cell?

(a) Mitochondria
(b) Definitive nucleus
(c) Ribosomes ✓
(d) Golgi bodies

Solution: (c) Prokaryotes lack membrane-bound organelles and a true nucleus, but they do have (70S) ribosomes for protein synthesis.

Q.50 [Chemistry]

A solution with a pH value less than 7 is a/an:

(a) Neutral solution
(b) Basic solution
(c) Acidic solution ✓
(d) Hypotonic solution

Solution: (c) On the pH scale 7 is neutral, below 7 is acidic and above 7 is basic. Hypotonic describes concentration relative to another solution, not acidity.

Q.51 [History]

Consider the following statements about the Bengal countryside at the time of the Permanent Settlement:
1. The zamindars' troops were disbanded.
2. Within the villages, the power of jotedars was more effective than that of zamindars.
3. The East India Company made a rule that the property of women would not be taken over.
4. Adhiyars were sharecroppers on the land owned by bargadars.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3 ✓
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 3 only

Solution: (b) 1, 2 and 3.
The Company disbanded the zamindars' troops and abolished their customs houses; within villages the jotedars' control over land and credit outweighed the zamindars'; and the Raja of Burdwan transferred estates to his mother because the Company had ruled that women's property would not be taken over. Statement 4 is wrong: adhiyars and bargadars are the same sharecroppers, who worked land held by jotedars.

Q.52 [History]

Match List-I with List-II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I (Journal/Newspaper/Pamphlet)	List-II (Founder/Editor/Author)
A. Kudi Arasu	1. Aurobindo Ghosh
B. Kisan Bulletin	2. Pherozeshah Mehta
C. Bombay Chronicle	3. Indulal Yagnik
D. Bhawani Mandir	4. E.V. Ramaswami Naicker

Code: A B C D

(a) 4 3 2 1 ✓
(b) 4 2 3 1
(c) 1 3 2 4
(d) 1 2 3 4

Solution: (a) 4 3 2 1.
Kudi Arasu (1925) was Periyar E.V. Ramaswami's Tamil weekly; the Kisan Bulletin was brought out by Indulal Yagnik; the Bombay Chronicle was founded by Pherozeshah Mehta in 1910; Bhawani Mandir (1905) was Aurobindo Ghosh's revolutionary pamphlet.

Q.53 [History]

Which of the following statements about the Ghadar Movement is/are correct?
1. The Ghadar Movement began in 1913 in San Francisco.
2. The movement was founded by Sohan Singh Bhakna.
3. The Ghadar Movement took its name from the weekly Ghadar brought out in several Indian languages.
Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 ✓

Solution: (d) 1, 2 and 3.
The Hindustan Ghadar Party was formed in 1913 with headquarters at Yugantar Ashram, San Francisco; Sohan Singh Bhakna was its founder-president (Lala Har Dayal its moving spirit); and the party took its name from its weekly paper Ghadar, published in Urdu, Punjabi and other languages.

Q.54 [History]

Chronologically arrange the formation of the following political associations, beginning from the earliest:
1. Poona Sarvajanik Sabha
2. Indian Association
3. Madras Mahajan Sabha
4. Bombay Presidency Association
Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 ✓
(b) 4, 3, 2, 1
(c) 1, 2, 4, 3
(d) 3, 4, 1, 2

Solution: (a) 1, 2, 3, 4.
Poona Sarvajanik Sabha — 1870; Indian Association (Calcutta) — 1876; Madras Mahajan Sabha — 1884; Bombay Presidency Association — 1885.

Q.55 [History]

Which one of the following periods has provided the evidence of a ploughed field at Kalibangan in Rajasthan?

(a) Early Harappan ✓
(b) Mature Harappan
(c) Late Harappan
(d) Chalcolithic

Solution: (a) The ploughed field at Kalibangan, with its criss-cross furrows, belongs to the Early (pre-urban) Harappan level and is the earliest known evidence of ploughing in the subcontinent.

Q.56 [History]

Consider the following events:
1. Muslim League Resolution for Pakistan
2. Gandhi-Irwin Pact
3. Dandi March
4. Second Round Table Conference
Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the given events (earliest to latest)?

(a) 2, 3, 1, 4
(b) 3, 2, 4, 1 ✓
(c) 3, 4, 2, 1
(d) 2, 3, 4, 1

Solution: (b) 3, 2, 4, 1.
Dandi March — March 1930; Gandhi–Irwin Pact — March 1931; Second Round Table Conference — September to December 1931; Lahore (Pakistan) Resolution — March 1940.

Q.57 [History]

Consider the following pairs:

(Historical Place)	(Well-known for)
I. Girnar	Sudarshana Lake
II. Cholistan	Terracotta model of plough
III. Mant (near Mathura)	Headless standing figure of Kanishka
IV. Sannati	Asokan Pillar Edict in Odisha

How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3 ✓
(d) 4

Solution: (c) 3.
Rudradaman's Junagadh inscription on Girnar records the repair of the Sudarshana Lake; a terracotta plough model comes from Cholistan (Pakistan), as from Banawali; the headless Kanishka statue was found at Mat/Mant near Mathura. Sannati, site of Asokan rock edicts, is in Karnataka, not Odisha — so three pairs are correct.

Q.58 [History]

With reference to the "Amara-Nayaka system", which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) It was a major political innovation of the Vijayanagara Empire.
(b) They were military commanders, who were given territories to govern and collect taxes and other dues from peasants, craftspersons and traders in the area.
(c) They retained part of the revenue for personal use and to maintain a stipulated contingent of horses and elephants.
(d) They were not allowed to use their share of revenue for the maintenance of temples. ✓

Solution: (d) Amara-nayakas did spend part of their revenue on temples and irrigation works; the other three statements describe the system correctly.

Q.59 [History]

The popular poem "Khoob ladi mardani woh to Jhansi wali rani thi" (Like a man she fought, she was the Rani of Jhansi) was written by:

(a) Mahadevi Varma
(b) Subhadra Kumari Chauhan ✓
(c) Amrita Pritam
(d) Balamani Amma

Solution: (b) "Jhansi ki Rani" is Subhadra Kumari Chauhan's best-known Hindi poem on Rani Lakshmibai of 1857.

Q.60 [History]

Consider the following statements about Ellora:
1. This art-historical site is associated exclusively with Buddhism.
2. The Kailasa temple at Ellora has been built of dressed stone and kiln fired bricks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 ✓

Solution: (d) Neither.
Ellora's 34 caves are Buddhist, Hindu and Jain, and the Kailasa temple (Cave 16) was carved top-down out of a single basalt rock, not built from stone and brick.

Q.61 [Culture]

In which one of the following states are the Guntupalle Buddhist Caves located?

(a) Andhra Pradesh ✓
(b) Karnataka
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Kerala

Solution: (a) Guntupalle (Guntupalli), with its rock-cut chaitya and stupas, is in Eluru district of Andhra Pradesh.

Q.62 [Culture]

Consider the following statements about Ajanta Cave paintings:
1. The paintings depict yakshas, gandharvas and apsaras.
2. The artists have used the technique of providing "multiple perspectives".
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (c) Both 1 and 2.
Ajanta's murals of Jataka tales and the Buddha's life are crowded with yakshas, gandharvas and apsaras, and the painters used multiple perspectives and outward projection to give figures depth and movement.

Q.63 [History]

"Neel Darpan", a play that depicted the atrocities on the indigo planters, was translated into English by:

(a) Dinabandhu Mitra
(b) Michael Madhusudan Dutta ✓
(c) James Long
(d) James C. Scott

Solution: (b) Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neel Darpan (1860); Michael Madhusudan Dutta translated it into English, and Rev. James Long was prosecuted for publishing the translation.

Q.64 [History]

With reference to the Revolt of 1857, consider the following statements:
1. Shah Mal mobilised the people of Baraut region of Uttar Pradesh and captured the bungalow of an Englishman and converted it into a "hall of justice".
2. Gonoo was a Kol leader of the Singhbhum region of Chotanagpur.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (c) Both 1 and 2.
Shah Mal, a Jat cultivator of Baraut pargana, led the villagers, cut Delhi–Meerut communications and ran his "hall of justice" from a captured bungalow; Gonoo led the Kol tribals of Singhbhum in 1857.

Q.65 [History]

Which of the following books portrays three images of the Mother Goddess: "Mother as she was", "Mother as she is" and "Mother as she will be"?

(a) Durgeshnandini
(b) Kapalkundala
(c) Anandamath ✓
(d) Devi Chaudhurani

Solution: (c) In Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay's Anandamath (1882), the sanyasis show Mahendra three images of the Mother — past glory, present degradation and future splendour; the novel also contains Vande Mataram.

Q.66 [History]

With reference to the women achievers in modern India, consider the following statements:
1. Pandita Ramabai published a book "A Comparison Between Women and Men" where she protested against the colonial view that men enjoyed all the rights, opportunities and benefits of change.
2. Tarabai Shinde worked in the field of medicine to reduce child mortality in rural India.
3. Sarojini Naidu led a delegation to London to demand for female franchise.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 ✓
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) None

Solution: (a) 1.
Only statement 3 is correct: Sarojini Naidu led the 1919 deputation to London demanding votes for women. Stri Purush Tulana (A Comparison Between Women and Men, 1882) was written by Tarabai Shinde, not Pandita Ramabai, and Tarabai was a writer, not a doctor.

Q.67 [History]

The Sanikatta Salt Works, known for Salt Satyagraha, is located in:

(a) Gujarat
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Kerala
(d) Karnataka ✓

Solution: (d) Sanikatta, near Gokarna in Uttara Kannada district of Karnataka, was the site of the 1930 Salt Satyagraha in the Kannada region.

Q.68 [History]

The Kalaram temple, known for temple entry movements in the early twentieth century, is located in which state of India?

(a) Maharashtra ✓
(b) Kerala
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Gujarat

Solution: (a) The Kalaram Temple is in Nashik, Maharashtra; B.R. Ambedkar led the temple-entry satyagraha there in 1930.

Q.69 [History]

Matangini Hazra and Lakshman Naik sacrificed their lives in:

(a) Bardoli Satyagraha
(b) Non-Cooperation Movement
(c) Civil Disobedience Movement
(d) Quit India Movement ✓

Solution: (d) Both died in the Quit India Movement of 1942 — Matangini Hazra was shot leading a procession at Tamluk, Bengal, and Lakshman Naik of Koraput, Odisha, was hanged in 1943.

Q.70 [History]

With reference to the history of India, the word "kopeki" is associated with:

(a) Clothes
(b) Coins ✓
(c) Land measurement
(d) A type of sport in South India

Solution: (b) Kopeki (kopeks) were small Russian coins; the term appears in medieval accounts of the Indo-Russian trade through Central Asia and Persia.

Q.71 [Economy]

Which one among the following pairs of type of firm and feature is not correctly matched?

(a) Oligopoly firm : Interdependence in decision-making
(b) Monopolistic firm : Firm is a price setter
(c) Monopoly firm : Produces an efficient level of output ✓
(d) Perfectly competitive firm : Produces socially optimum output

Solution: (c) A monopolist restricts output below the efficient level to keep price above marginal cost — the source of monopoly deadweight loss. The other pairs are standard textbook features.

Q.72 [Economy]

Union Budget 2025 increased the Sectoral cap of FDI to 100 per cent from 74 per cent for:

(a) Telecom Sector
(b) Power Sector
(c) Defence Sector
(d) Insurance Sector ✓

Solution: (d) Budget 2025-26 raised the FDI limit in insurance from 74 to 100 per cent for companies that invest the entire premium in India.

Q.73 [Economy]

The practice of reducing the size of a product while maintaining its sticker price is called:

(a) Shrinkflation ✓
(b) Reflation
(c) Disinflation
(d) Deflation

Solution: (a) Shrinkflation is a hidden price rise — less product for the same money. Disinflation is a slowing of inflation, deflation a fall in prices, reflation a deliberate stimulus.

Q.74 [Economy]

Consider the following statements about innovation and research and development in India:
1. India's rank in Global Innovation Index reported by World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) has improved significantly between 2015 and 2024.
2. Funding of research and development is sourced primarily from private sector entities and is sectorally concentrated in pharmaceuticals and information technology.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only ✓
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (a) 1 only.
India climbed from 81st (2015) to 39th (2024) in the GII. But Indian R&D is funded mainly by the government (over half of gross expenditure on R&D), with the private sector a minority — so statement 2 is wrong.

Q.75 [Economy]

Consider the following statements about the Indian Institute of Entrepreneurship (IIE):
1. The IIE was established in 1999 in Guwahati.
2. The main aim of the institute is to provide training, research and consulting activities for small and micro enterprises.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only ✓
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (b) 2 only.
IIE, Guwahati, was registered in 1993 (not 1999) and functions under the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship, offering training, research and consultancy for small and micro enterprises, especially in the North East.

Q.76 [Economy]

Consider the following statements about Union Government's Expenditure on revenue account and effective capital expenditure:
1. Effective capital expenditure as percentage of GDP has increased from 2020-21 to 2023-24.
2. Expenditure on revenue account as percentage of GDP has increased from 2020-21 to 2023-24.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only ✓
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (a) 1 only.
Effective capital expenditure rose from about 3 per cent of GDP in 2020-21 to over 4 per cent in 2023-24, while revenue expenditure fell from the pandemic peak of about 15.5 per cent to under 12 per cent of GDP.

Q.77 [Economy]

Which one among the following statements about the Districts as Export Hubs (DEH) in India is not correct?

(a) DEH was launched in August 2019.
(b) The aim of DEH is to boost exports of only selected districts of the country. ✓
(c) India's Foreign Trade Policy 2023 reiterated the role of DEH.
(d) DEH aims to promote exports by providing financial inclusion and facilitating logistical and infrastructural support.

Solution: (b) DEH identifies export-potential products in every district of the country, not a selected few. It was launched in August 2019 by the DGFT and was reaffirmed in Foreign Trade Policy 2023.

Q.78 [Current Affairs]

Which of the following statements about Tim Tim Tare (TTT) is/are correct?
1. TTT is a pioneering initiative that aims at imparting essential life skills to adolescent students across India.
2. TTT is a pioneering initiative that aims at imparting vocational and technical skills to students across India.
Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only ✓
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (a) 1 only.
Tim Tim Tare is a life-skills programme for adolescents — self-awareness, emotional well-being, decision-making — not a vocational or technical skilling scheme.

Q.79 [Economy]

Consider the following statements regarding Annual Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) report 2023-24 by the National Statistical Organization (NSO):
1. The agriculture sector remains dominant in employment, with its share rising from about 44 per cent in 2017-18 to about 46 per cent in 2023-24.
2. The share of female workers in agriculture has increased during the period 2017-18 to 2023-24.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (c) Both 1 and 2.
PLFS 2023-24 puts agriculture's share of workers at 46.1 per cent, up from 44.1 per cent in 2017-18, and the share of female workers in agriculture rose from about 57 to 64 per cent over the same period.

Q.80 [Current Affairs]

Which one of the following platforms marks a transformative step in India's immunization efforts by digitizing vaccination records for pregnant women and children up to 16 years?

(a) U-WIN ✓
(b) PM-ABHIM
(c) eSanjeevani
(d) FDSI

Solution: (a) U-WIN, built on the CoWIN model, digitises the Universal Immunisation Programme — recording every vaccination of pregnant women and children from birth to 16 years.

Q.81 [Computers]

Which language uses the symbolic representation of machine codes needed to program a particular processor or processor family?

(a) Machine Language
(b) Assembly Language ✓
(c) High-Level Language
(d) All of the above

Solution: (b) Assembly language replaces binary machine instructions with mnemonics (MOV, ADD) specific to one processor family; an assembler converts it to machine code.

Q.82 [Computers]

What are the uses of software ports?
1. Connect client computer to server
2. Connect external devices to computer
3. Identify different services like email, file transfer
4. Connecting peripherals like cameras, scanners
Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3 ✓
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 4

Solution: (b) 1 and 3.
A software (network) port is a numbered endpoint — 25 for email, 21 for FTP, 80 for HTTP — that lets a client reach a particular service on a server. Plugging in cameras and external devices uses hardware ports.

Q.83 [Computers]

Assuming the computer is a 4-bit computer, what result is produced after subtraction of 3 from 5 using the 2's complement representation?

(a) 0101
(b) 10010 ✓
(c) 1101
(d) 11001

Solution: (b) 10010.
5 = 0101 and the 2's complement of 3 (0011) is 1101. Adding: 0101 + 1101 = 10010. The leading carry is then discarded, leaving 0010 = 2; the raw result the adder produces is 10010.

Q.84 [Computers]

Which one of the following is not a logical operator?

(a) NOT
(b) OR
(c) AND
(d) Division ✓

Solution: (d) NOT, OR and AND are Boolean (logical) operators; division is an arithmetic operator.

Q.85 [Computers]

Which among the following are the purposes of deploying a Firewall?
1. Examine each packet arriving from Internet
2. Prevent unauthorised access
3. Block suspicious activity
4. Interconnect telephones
Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 ✓

Solution: (d) 1, 2 and 3.
A firewall inspects incoming packets, blocks unauthorised access and suspicious traffic. Interconnecting telephones is the job of a PBX or telephone exchange.

Q.86 [Geography]

Amsterdam-St. Paul Plateau is located in which one of the following oceanic regions?

(a) Arctic Ocean
(b) North Atlantic Ocean
(c) Southern Indian Ocean ✓
(d) South Pacific Ocean

Solution: (c) The Amsterdam–St Paul Plateau, carrying the two French islands of the same names, lies on the Southeast Indian Ridge in the southern Indian Ocean.

Q.87 [Geography]

Which one of the following pairs of City and Lake is not correctly matched?

(a) Buffalo : Erie
(b) Detroit : Superior ✓
(c) Milwaukee : Michigan
(d) Toronto : Ontario

Solution: (b) Detroit stands on the Detroit River between Lake St Clair and Lake Erie, far from Lake Superior. Buffalo–Erie, Milwaukee–Michigan and Toronto–Ontario are correct.

Q.88 [Geography]

Which of the following statements with reference to lines of latitudes is/are correct?
1. The distance between two successive latitudes changes slightly from the equator to the poles.
2. If parallels of latitude are drawn at an interval of one degree, the total number of parallels thus drawn, including the equator, will be 179.
Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (c) Both 1 and 2.
Because the Earth is flattened at the poles, a degree of latitude grows from about 110.6 km at the equator to 111.7 km at the poles. Parallels at one-degree intervals number 89 in each hemisphere plus the equator = 179 (the poles are points, not parallels).

Q.89 [Geography]

Arrange the following major elements present in the Earth's crust, in ascending order, in weight percentage:
1. Aluminium
2. Calcium
3. Silicon
4. Oxygen
Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 3, 4, 1, 2
(b) 4, 3, 1, 2
(c) 2, 1, 3, 4 ✓
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Solution: (c) 2, 1, 3, 4.
By weight the crust is oxygen 46.6%, silicon 27.7%, aluminium 8.1% and calcium 3.6% — so ascending order is calcium, aluminium, silicon, oxygen.

Q.90 [Geography]

Match List-I with List-II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I (Island/Nation)	List-II (Tectonic Plate)
A. Comoros	1. North American Plate
B. Baffin Island	2. African Plate
C. Sri Lanka	3. Eurasian Plate
D. Andaman Islands	4. Indo-Australian Plate

Code: A B C D

(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 2 4 1 3
(d) 2 1 4 3 ✓

Solution: (d) 2 1 4 3.
The Comoros sit on the African Plate, Baffin Island on the North American Plate, Sri Lanka on the Indian (Indo-Australian) Plate, and the Andaman arc on the Burma microplate at the edge of the Eurasian Plate.

Q.91 [Geography]

Which of the following statements with reference to Richter scale is/are correct?
1. It is the intensity scale of an earthquake.
2. Richter indicates the amount of energy released during the earthquake.
Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only ✓
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (b) 2 only.
The Richter scale measures magnitude — the energy released at the focus. Intensity, the felt effect at a place, is measured on the Mercalli scale.

Q.92 [Geography]

Which of the following statements with reference to Glacial trough is/are correct?
1. Alpine glaciers strip valleys of their soil, regolith and sediment to form glacial troughs.
2. When the sea level is below the floor of a glacial trough, the seawater enters as the ice front recedes, creating a fiord.
Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only ✓
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (a) 1 only.
Valley glaciers scour their valleys into U-shaped troughs. A fiord forms when the trough floor lies below sea level, so the sea floods in as the ice retreats — statement 2 has it backwards.

Q.93 [Geography]

Consider the following statements with reference to Mid-latitude deciduous forests:
1. Mid-latitude deciduous forests consist largely of trees that drop their leaves during the summer season.
2. Mid-latitude deciduous forests are native to eastern North America and Western Europe.
3. In Asia, the Mid-latitude deciduous forests occur as a belt between the boreal forest to the north and steppe lands to the south.
4. Beech, Hickory and Walnut are common examples of trees found in Mid-latitude deciduous forests.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4 ✓

Solution: (d) 2, 3 and 4.
Deciduous trees shed their leaves in the cold season, not summer, so statement 1 is wrong. The forests are native to eastern North America and Western Europe, form a belt between taiga and steppe in East Asia, and include beech, hickory, walnut, oak and maple.

Q.94 [Geography]

Arrange the following permanent gases present in the atmosphere in ascending order:
1. Helium
2. Hydrogen
3. Neon
4. Xenon
Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 3, 1, 2, 4
(b) 3, 1, 4, 2
(c) 2, 4, 1, 3 ✓
(d) 2, 4, 3, 1

Solution: (c) 2, 4, 1, 3.
By volume: hydrogen 0.00005%, xenon 0.00009%, helium 0.0005%, neon 0.0018% — so hydrogen, xenon, helium, neon in ascending order.

Q.95 [Geography]

The pattern of planetary winds largely depends upon which of the following factors?
1. Latitudinal variation of atmospheric heating
2. The distribution of continents and oceans
3. The rotation of earth
Which of the above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 ✓

Solution: (d) 1, 2 and 3.
Planetary winds depend on the latitudinal variation of heating, the pressure belts that result, the migration of those belts with the sun, the distribution of continents and oceans, and the Earth's rotation.

Q.96 [Geography]

Which of the following statements with reference to Water Vapour in the atmosphere is/are correct?
1. It has a role to play in the stability and instability in the air.
2. It acts like a blanket allowing the earth to neither become too cold nor too hot.
Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (c) Both 1 and 2.
Water vapour absorbs incoming insolation and outgoing terrestrial radiation, moderating temperature, and its condensation releases latent heat that drives atmospheric stability and instability.

Q.97 [Geography]

Consider the following pairs with reference to world climate types and their characteristics:

(Climate)	(Characteristic)
I. Tropical wet and dry	Winter dry season
II. Mid-latitude steppe	Mid-latitude semi-arid or dry
III. Humid sub-tropical	No dry season, warm summer
IV. Marine west coast	No dry season, severely cold summer

How many of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3 ✓
(d) 4

Solution: (c) 3.
In Koeppen's scheme Aw has a dry winter, BSk is the mid-latitude semi-arid steppe, and Cfa has no dry season with a warm summer. Cfb, the marine west coast climate, has no dry season but a warm-to-cool summer — never severely cold — so pair IV is wrong.

Q.98 [Geography]

Identify the climate type based on the given below characteristics:
1. The annual precipitation is low and is around 15 cm.
2. The development of pronounced winter anticyclones and their weakening in summer sets in monsoon-like reversal of wind in this region.
3. Polewards, summer temperatures are low.
Select the answer from the options given below:

(a) Subtropical steppe
(b) Humid sub-tropical climate
(c) Cold climate with dry winters ✓
(d) Tundra climate

Solution: (c) These are the marks of the cold climate with dry winters (Koeppen Dw) of north-eastern Asia — scanty precipitation, the Siberian winter high that weakens in summer to produce a monsoon-like wind reversal, and short cool summers polewards.

Q.99 [Geography]

Consider the following statements with reference to the Cotton textile industry in India:
1. Cotton textile industry has, over time, spread to other parts of the country, beyond Gujarat and Maharashtra.
2. Raw cotton is not a weight-losing raw material.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (c) Both 1 and 2.
Because cotton loses little weight in manufacture, mills can locate away from the cotton tracts — which is why the industry spread from Mumbai and Ahmedabad to Tamil Nadu, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh and elsewhere.

Q.100 [Geography]

Indore city in Madhya Pradesh is situated in which one of the following regions?

(a) Bundelkhand
(b) Mahakoshal
(c) Malwa Plateau ✓
(d) Nimar Region

Solution: (c) Indore lies on the Malwa Plateau in western Madhya Pradesh; Nimar is the Narmada valley belt to its south.

Q.101 [Geography]

Which among the following Classes of Towns in India holds the highest percentage of Urban Population as per the Census 2011?

(a) Class II
(b) Class III ✓
(c) Class IV
(d) Class VI

Solution: (b) After the Class I cities (which hold about 70 per cent of urban India), the Class III towns of 20,000–49,999 people — the most numerous class — hold the next largest share, ahead of Class II.

Q.102 [Geography]

The Golden Quadrilateral Highway does not pass through which of the following cities?
1. Bhubaneshwar
2. Jaipur
3. Lucknow
4. Indore
Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4 ✓

Solution: (d) 3 and 4.
The Golden Quadrilateral links Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai and Kolkata: its Delhi–Mumbai leg runs through Jaipur and its Kolkata–Chennai leg through Bhubaneswar. Lucknow and Indore lie off the route.

Q.103 [Geography]

Consider the following statements with reference to location of Major Ports in India:
1. Deendayal Port is situated at the head of Gulf of Khambhat.
2. Cochin Port is situated at the head of Vembanad Kayal.
3. Mormugao Port is situated at the entrance of the Zuari estuary.
4. Paradip Port is situated in the Godavari delta.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 ✓
(d) 3 and 4

Solution: (c) 2 and 3.
Deendayal (Kandla) Port is at the head of the Gulf of Kachchh, not Khambhat, and Paradip is in the Mahanadi delta, not the Godavari. Cochin on Vembanad Kayal and Mormugao at the Zuari estuary are correct.

Q.104 [Geography]

Which one among the following is not an atmospheric natural disaster?

(a) Drought
(b) Hailstorm
(c) Frost
(d) Avalanche ✓

Solution: (d) An avalanche is a mass movement of snow down a slope — a terrestrial (geological) hazard. Drought, hailstorm and frost are atmospheric.

Q.105 [Polity]

Which of the following statements with reference to National Institute of Disaster Management (NIDM) is/are correct?
1. It was constituted in the year 2006.
2. Under the Disaster Management Act, 2005, the Institute has been entrusted to assist in national level policy formulation with reference to Disaster Management.
Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (c) Both 1 and 2.
NIDM was constituted as a statutory body in 2006 under the Disaster Management Act, 2005, with the mandate of training, research, documentation and assisting national-level policy formulation on disaster management.

Q.106 [Defence]

Which one of the following statements about 'Nilgiri', 'Surat' and 'Vaghsheer' is correct?

(a) These are Tiger Reserves in the state of Gujarat.
(b) These are combatants commissioned by the Indian Navy. ✓
(c) These are Biodiversity parks maintained by the Indian Army.
(d) These are Tiger Reserves maintained by the Indian Navy.

Solution: (b) INS Nilgiri (stealth frigate), INS Surat (destroyer) and INS Vaghsheer (Kalvari-class submarine) were commissioned together at Mumbai in January 2025.

Q.107 [Economy]

Which of the following surveys are being conducted by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation, Government of India?
1. Survey on Social Consumption — Health
2. Comprehensive Modular Survey — Telecom and ICT skills
3. Periodic Labour Force Survey
4. Annual Survey on Unincorporated Enterprises
Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 ✓
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 2 only

Solution: (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4.
All four are National Sample Survey exercises run by MoSPI: the health round of the Social Consumption survey, the Comprehensive Modular Survey on telecom and ICT skills, the PLFS and the Annual Survey of Unincorporated Sector Enterprises (ASUSE).

Q.108 [Economy]

Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The Government of India has discontinued the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana.
2. The Government of India has approved the continuation of Restructured Weather Based Crop Insurance Scheme.
Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only ✓
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (b) 2 only.
In January 2025 the Cabinet approved the continuation of both PMFBY and the Restructured Weather Based Crop Insurance Scheme up to 2025-26; PMFBY has not been discontinued.

Q.109 [International Relations]

Match List-I with List-II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I (Organization)	List-II (Year of Formation)
A. European Union	1. 1994
B. Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC)	2. 1967
C. Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN)	3. 1989
D. Free Trade Area of the Americas (FTAA)	4. 1993

Code: A B C D

(a) 3 2 1 4
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 4 3 2 1 ✓
(d) 4 3 1 2

Solution: (c) 4 3 2 1.
The EU came into being under the Maastricht Treaty in 1993; APEC was founded in 1989; ASEAN by the Bangkok Declaration of 1967; the FTAA proposal dates from the 1994 Summit of the Americas in Miami.

Q.110 [International Relations]

The book 'The Art of War' was written by:

(a) Niccolo Machiavelli ✓
(b) Thucydides
(c) Thomas Hobbes
(d) J.S. Mill

Solution: (a) Among the options, it is Machiavelli — his Dell'arte della guerra (The Art of War, 1521) — not to be confused with Sun Tzu's ancient Chinese treatise of the same name.

Q.111 [Defence]

Which one of the following military operations was not undertaken by India?

(a) Operation Ablaze
(b) Operation Spider's Web ✓
(c) Operation Trident
(d) Operation Bandar

Solution: (b) Operation Spider's Web was Ukraine's June 2025 drone strike on Russian air bases. Ablaze (1965), Trident (the 1971 Karachi raid) and Bandar (the 2019 Balakot strike) were Indian operations.

Q.112 [Defence]

Which of the following statements are correct about 'Arnala', an Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Craft?
1. It is indigenously designed in India.
2. It is named after the historic Arnala fort located in Maharashtra.
3. It has been built under a Public-Private Partnership (PPP) of GRSE with M/s L&T Shipyard.
Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 ✓

Solution: (d) 1, 2 and 3.
INS Arnala, the first of 16 ASW shallow-water craft, was commissioned in June 2025: indigenously designed, named after the island fort off Vasai in Maharashtra, and built by GRSE in partnership with L&T Shipbuilders.

Q.113 [Current Affairs]

Robert Prevost became the Catholic Pope after the death of Pope Francis. Which of the following statements is/are correct about him?
1. He will now be known as Leo XV.
2. He became the 271st Catholic Pope.
3. He is a dual citizen of the United States of America and Peru.
Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 only
(d) 3 only ✓

Solution: (d) 3 only.
Elected in May 2025, Robert Prevost took the name Leo XIV (not XV) and is the 267th pope. Born in Chicago, he holds Peruvian citizenship from his years as a missionary and bishop in Peru.

Q.114 [Geography]

Which of the statements about the dams on the Chenab river is/are correct?
1. Salal dam, Aalal dam and Baglihar dams are on the Chenab river.
2. Baglihar dam has a greater height than Salal dam.
3. Salal dam is operated by Jammu and Kashmir Power Development Corporation and Baglihar dam is operated by NHPC Limited.
Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 only ✓
(d) 3 only

Solution: (c) 2 only.
There is no 'Aalal' dam — the Chenab projects are Salal, Dulhasti and Baglihar — so statement 1 fails. Baglihar (about 143 m) is taller than Salal (118 m). The operators in statement 3 are swapped: Salal is NHPC's, Baglihar belongs to the J&K State Power Development Corporation.

Q.115 [Current Affairs]

Which of the following statements about 'Alcatraz', which was recently in news, is/are correct?
1. It was once a defence fort on Alcatraz island of America.
2. It was once a prison on Alcatraz island of America.
3. It was once occupied by a group of native American students, known as 'Indians of all tribes'.
Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 ✓
(d) 1 only

Solution: (c) 1, 2 and 3.
Alcatraz in San Francisco Bay was a military fortification from the 1850s, then the federal penitentiary (1934–63), and from 1969 to 1971 was occupied by Native American activists, many of them students, calling themselves Indians of All Tribes. It returned to the news in 2025 with proposals to reopen it as a prison.

Q.116 [Defence]

Which of the following statements about India's military arsenal is/are correct?
1. HAMMER is a weapon system built for the Rafale fighter aircraft.
2. SCALP cruise missile is also known as Storm Shadow.
3. BrahMos missiles are built under a joint venture between India and Russia.
Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 ✓
(d) 3 only

Solution: (c) 1, 2 and 3.
HAMMER is the French precision-guided bomb integrated on India's Rafales; SCALP-EG is the French name of the Anglo-French Storm Shadow cruise missile; BrahMos is made by BrahMos Aerospace, the India–Russia joint venture of DRDO and NPO Mashinostroyenia.

Q.117 [Current Affairs]

Recently, ICAR (Indian Council of Agricultural Research) has developed the world's first genome-edited rice varieties. Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to the developed products?
1. The genome-edited varieties — DRR Rice 100 (Kamla) and Pusa DST Rice 1 have been developed by ICAR-IARI, New Delhi.
2. DRR Rice 100 (Kamla), based on Samba Mahsuri, has a shorter duration of maturity.
Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only ✓
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (b) 2 only.
DRR Dhan 100 (Kamla) was developed by ICAR-IIRR, Hyderabad, and only Pusa DST Rice 1 by ICAR-IARI, New Delhi — so statement 1 is wrong. Kamla, edited from Samba Mahsuri, matures about 20 days earlier with higher yield.

Q.118 [Economy]

Which one of the following is a good statistic to evaluate where an economy stands in the financial cycle?

(a) Tax/GDP Ratio
(b) Fiscal Deficit/GDP Ratio
(c) Household Consumption/GDP Ratio
(d) Credit/GDP Ratio ✓

Solution: (d) The credit-to-GDP ratio (and its gap from trend) is the standard gauge of the financial cycle — rising credit relative to output signals a boom, a contraction signals the downturn. The other ratios describe fiscal or real activity.

Q.119 [Economy]

Which of the following pairs of initiatives of the Government of India and their objectives is/are correctly matched?
1. Global Capability Centre (GCC) : Reshaping corporate landscape
2. U-WIN Portal : Ease of doing business across states
Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only ✓
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (a) 1 only.
The GCC framework in Budget 2025-26 promotes global capability centres in tier-2 cities, reshaping India's corporate landscape. U-WIN is the immunisation records portal, nothing to do with ease of doing business.

Q.120 [Economy]

Social Mobilisation and Institution Development (SM&ID) is one of the major components of:

(a) Deen Dayal Antyodaya Yojana ✓
(b) National Urban Digital Mission
(c) Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation
(d) Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan

Solution: (a) SM&ID — organising the urban poor into self-help groups and their federations — is a core component of Deen Dayal Antyodaya Yojana–National Urban Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NULM).