On 13 November 2026, the registration framework for Consent Managers under the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, 2023 came into effect. The next day, a PIB release from the Ministry of Electronics and IT said that Secretary S. Krishnan had launched an online portal, dpbi.gov.in, where Indian companies with a net worth of at least ₹2 crore can apply to the Data Protection Board to be registered. A consent manager is a registered entity through which a person can give, review and withdraw consent over her data. The release adds that the Act's other key provisions, covering the rights of individuals, the duties of the companies that hold data, and the Board's inquiry and penalty powers, begin on 13 May 2027. Behind this rollout lies a constitutional story: how the Supreme Court found a right to privacy that the Constitution never names. UPSC asks about both halves.
Eight Judges, Six Judges, Nine Judges: The Privacy Cases
By Aditya Tiwari · Polity faculty, The Cavalier · Lawyer, 10 years teaching law and Polity
The word "privacy" does not appear in the Constitution. Whether it could still be a fundamental right depended on how far the Supreme Court was willing to read Article 21: "No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law." In A.K. Gopalan (1950) the Court read that Article narrowly. It said the "procedure" only had to be laid down by a valid law, however unfair, and that "personal liberty" meant freedom of the body. Maneka Gandhi (1978) overruled that view. The procedure now had to be fair, just and reasonable, and Articles 14, 19 and 21 were read together. Once Article 21 meant "life with dignity", the door opened for privacy.
| Case | Bench | What the Court said about privacy |
|---|---|---|
| M.P. Sharma (1954) | 8 judges | Search and seizure: no fundamental right to privacy can be read in |
| Kharak Singh (1962) | 6 judges | Majority: no right to privacy, but night-time police visits to a home violated "personal liberty". Justice Subba Rao dissented, calling privacy an essential part of liberty |
| Gobind v. State of M.P. (1975) | 3 judges | Assumed a right to privacy exists in Article 21, but said it can be limited by a compelling state interest |
| R. Rajagopal (1994); PUCL (1997) | Smaller benches | Privacy recognised as part of Article 21; PUCL laid down safeguards for telephone tapping |
| K.S. Puttaswamy (2017) | 9 judges | Right to privacy is a fundamental right; M.P. Sharma and Kharak Singh overruled on this point |
The pattern is easy to remember: larger benches earlier, smaller benches later. A bench of eight and a bench of six had said no. Only a bench larger than both could overrule them, which is why the Court had to assemble nine judges in 2017. The petitioner was Justice K.S. Puttaswamy, a retired Karnataka High Court judge, who had challenged the Aadhaar scheme. The question referred to the bench was general: is privacy a fundamental right at all? On 24 August 2017 the nine judges answered yes, unanimously.
What Puttaswamy Held, and the Aadhaar Judgment
The Court did not create privacy from nothing. It held that privacy is an intrinsic part of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 and of the freedoms in Part III as a whole. It described three strands: bodily privacy (decisions about your own body), informational privacy (control over facts about you) and the privacy of choice, such as whom to marry or what to eat. Privacy is not absolute. And because Article 21 protects citizens and non-citizens alike, so does privacy; Article 19, by contrast, belongs to citizens only. Our pages on the right to liberty and judicial activism and PIL show how the Court builds new rights on Article 21 in this way.
An invasion of privacy is valid only if it passes all three tests. (1) Legality: there must be a law. (2) Legitimate aim: the law must serve a real State purpose, such as national security or welfare delivery. (3) Proportionality: the intrusion must be necessary and no more than needed to meet that aim, with procedural safeguards against abuse.

The same Aadhaar challenge came back to the Court. In September 2018 a five-judge bench (the Aadhaar judgment, sometimes called Puttaswamy II) decided by a 4:1 majority that the Aadhaar Act, 2016 was constitutional for delivering welfare subsidies and benefits, and that it did not violate privacy because it passed the proportionality test. But the Court struck down Section 57, which let private companies demand Aadhaar authentication. It also held that Aadhaar could not be made compulsory for bank accounts, mobile connections or school admissions. Linking Aadhaar to PAN was upheld. Our Aadhaar explainer covers the system itself.
Puttaswamy (2017) declared the right; the Aadhaar judgment (2018) applied it and upheld the scheme in part. The petitioner was a retired judge, not one of the nine on the bench.
The Law: From Srikrishna to the DPDP Act
A fundamental right protects you against the State. It does not stop a private company from collecting your data. To close that gap, the government set up a committee under Justice B.N. Srikrishna in 2017. Its report and draft bill came in July 2018. Later bills followed, and after a 2019 version was withdrawn in 2022, Parliament passed the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 in August 2023 (it received assent on 11 August). The Act covers digital personal data processed in India, and also processing abroad if it is connected with offering goods or services to people in India.
| Term | Meaning | Everyday example |
|---|---|---|
| Data Principal | The individual whom the data is about (for a child, the parent or guardian acts) | You, when you download a shopping app |
| Data Fiduciary | Anyone who decides the purpose and means of processing the data | The shopping company |
| Significant Data Fiduciary | A fiduciary notified by the Government because of the volume or sensitivity of its data; it must appoint a Data Protection Officer based in India, an independent auditor and carry out impact assessments | A very large platform |
| Consent Manager | A person registered with the Board through whom a data principal gives, manages, reviews and withdraws consent | A single dashboard to see and cancel all your permissions |
| Data Protection Board of India | The adjudicating body that inquires into breaches and imposes penalties; works digitally; appeals go to TDSAT | The forum where a complaint ends up |
The Act rests on consent. Consent must be free, specific, informed, unconditional and unambiguous, given by a clear affirmative action, with a notice that can be read in English or any language of the Eighth Schedule. A person can withdraw consent as easily as she gave it. Consent is not needed for listed "legitimate uses" in Section 7, such as data voluntarily given for a stated purpose, State benefits and services, medical emergencies and employment.
Rights of a data principal: to get a summary of the data processed, to correct and erase it, to have grievances redressed and to nominate someone to act if she dies or is incapacitated. She also has duties: she must not file false or frivolous complaints or impersonate others, and a breach can cost up to ₹10,000. Children (under 18) need verifiable consent from a parent or guardian. Fiduciaries may not track or monitor children's behaviour or target advertising at them.
| Breach | Maximum penalty |
|---|---|
| Failure to take reasonable security safeguards against a data breach | ₹250 crore |
| Failure to notify the Board and affected persons of a breach; failure to meet obligations for children | ₹200 crore |
| Failure of the additional duties of a Significant Data Fiduciary | ₹150 crore |
| Any other breach of the Act or Rules | ₹50 crore |
| Breach of duties by a data principal | ₹10,000 |
Exemptions, the RTI Change and the Rules Timeline
Section 17 is where privacy and State power meet. It exempts the processing of personal data for enforcing legal rights, preventing and investigating offences and certain research and statistical purposes. It also lets the Central Government exempt notified State agencies from the Act's provisions in the interests of the security of the State, sovereignty, public order and friendly relations with foreign States. Critics ask whether such exemptions pass the proportionality test of Puttaswamy; the government says they are limited to notified agencies and stated purposes.
The second flash-point is Section 44(3). It amends the Right to Information Act, 2005, replacing Section 8(1)(j) so that the exemption from disclosure covers "information which relates to personal information". Earlier, personal information could be denied only if it had no connection with public activity or invaded privacy unjustifiably, and could still be released if a larger public interest required it. Opposition MPs and RTI activists say the change removes that public-interest balance. The government points to the Act's own exception for personal data that must be disclosed under law. Expect polity questions on this clash between two rights, privacy and information.
| Phase | What begins |
|---|---|
| Rules notified, 13 November 2025 (gazette date; released to the public on 14 November) | Data Protection Board provisions and the Act's definitions; the RTI amendment (Section 44(3)) takes effect |
| 13 November 2026 | Consent Manager registration framework; portal at dpbi.gov.in; net worth of at least ₹2 crore |
| 13 May 2027 (18 months) | Rights of Data Principals, obligations of Data Fiduciaries, and the Board's inquiry and penalty process |
A fiduciary must also report a breach to the Board and to those affected, with a detailed report due within 72 hours under the Rules. Against the State, a citizen can still go straight to the Supreme Court under Article 32: see our page on writs and Article 32.
How UPSC Has Asked It: Past Papers Solved
UPSC has asked about this chain mainly as who-petitioned, who-is-covered and what-does-Article-21-include.
Who among the following filed the Writ Petition that led to the famous verdict of the Supreme Court of India recognising the Right to Privacy as a Fundamental Right?
(a) Justice P. N. Bhagwati (b) Justice Rohinton Fali Nariman (c) Justice K. S. Puttaswamy (d) Justice Anil R. Dave
Answer: (c). Justice K.S. Puttaswamy, a retired High Court judge, was the petitioner. Bhagwati wrote key Article 21 judgments, and Nariman and Dave are judges, not petitioners.
When a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation, the right to move a Court for the enforcement of all Fundamental Rights remains suspended, except
(a) Article 20 and Article 21 (b) Article 21 and Article 22 (c) Article 19 and Article 20 (d) Article 15 and Article 16
Answer: (a). After the 44th Amendment (1978), the rights under Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended even in an Emergency. Privacy, as part of Article 21, inherits that protection.
Fundamental right guaranteed under which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India is available only to the citizens of India?
(a) Article 19 (b) Article 20 (c) Article 21 (d) Article 22
Answer: (a). The seven freedoms of Article 19 (now six) belong to citizens. Articles 20, 21 and 22 protect every person, so the right to privacy is available to non-citizens too.
Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Article 15 of the Constitution of India is available to both citizens of India and the foreigners. 2. Article 16 of the Constitution of India is available to the citizens of India only. 3. Article 21 of the Constitution of India is available to both citizens of India and the foreigners alike within the territory of India.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b). Article 15 is citizens-only, so statement 1 is false. Article 16 is citizens-only (true) and Article 21 covers everyone in India (true).
Which one of the following statements with regard to Maneka Gandhi vs. Union of India case, 1978 is not correct?
(a) It was held that Article 19 and Article 21 are not watertight compartments. (b) It was held that a law coming under Article 21 may not satisfy the requirements of Article 19. (c) A fair trial eliminates the biases against the accused in the trial. (d) The right to life under Article 21 does not include the right to die.
Answer: (b). Maneka Gandhi held the opposite: a law that takes away personal liberty must also satisfy Articles 14 and 19. That is the idea that later carried privacy into Article 21.
The privacy case produces one factual question (the petitioner, the bench size or the year) and several Article 21 scope questions (who is covered, what survives an Emergency). Learn Gopalan, Maneka, Puttaswamy as one ladder.
Practice MCQs (with answers)
- The right to privacy was declared a fundamental right in 2017 by a Supreme Court bench of
- 5 judges
- 7 judges
- 9 judges
- 11 judges
- Puttaswamy (2017) overruled which earlier decisions, to the extent they denied a right to privacy?
- Golak Nath and Kesavananda Bharati
- A.K. Gopalan and Maneka Gandhi
- Gobind and R. Rajagopal
- M.P. Sharma and Kharak Singh
- Under the DPDP Act, 2023, an entity that decides the purpose and means of processing personal data is called a
- Data Fiduciary
- Data Principal
- Data Protection Board
- Consent Manager
- The maximum penalty under the Act's schedule for failing to take reasonable security safeguards is
- ₹50 crore
- ₹250 crore
- ₹500 crore
- ₹10,000
- Under the Act, a "child" is a person below the age of
- 12 years
- 14 years
- 16 years
- 18 years
- A Consent Manager under the DPDP framework is registered with the
- Ministry of Electronics and IT
- Data Protection Board of India
- Reserve Bank of India
- Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal
- Section 44(3) of the DPDP Act amends the
- Right to Information Act, 2005
- Information Technology Act, 2000
- Aadhaar Act, 2016
- Consumer Protection Act, 2019
- The committee headed by Justice B.N. Srikrishna (2017–18) was set up to
- review the Aadhaar Act
- examine electoral reforms
- propose a data protection framework
- draft amendments to the RTI Act
1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b, 5-d, 6-b, 7-a, 8-c. Q2: Gobind and Rajagopal already leaned towards privacy; Gopalan and Maneka are Article 21 cases but not the ones denying privacy. Q4: ₹250 crore is the top slab; ₹200 crore applies to breach notification and children's obligations. Q6: the framework in the PIB release makes registration with the Board, not the Ministry, the test. Q7: Section 44(2) deals with the IT Act; 44(3) deals with the RTI Act.
Quick Revision
- Gopalan (1950) narrow Article 21; Maneka Gandhi (1978) fair procedure, Articles 14-19-21 together. Privacy: M.P. Sharma (1954, 8 judges) and Kharak Singh (1962, 6 judges) said no; Gobind (1975) assumed it, subject to compelling state interest.
- Puttaswamy: 24 August 2017, nine judges, unanimous. Privacy is part of Article 21 and Part III; not absolute; covers non-citizens. Petitioner: retired Justice K.S. Puttaswamy.
- Test: legality, legitimate aim, proportionality. Aadhaar judgment (Sept 2018, 4:1): Act upheld for welfare; Section 57 (private use) struck down; no compulsory Aadhaar for bank accounts, mobiles, schools; PAN link upheld.
- Srikrishna Committee (2017); report July 2018. DPDP Act, 2023; assent 11 August 2023. Terms: data principal, data fiduciary, significant data fiduciary, consent manager, Data Protection Board (appeals to TDSAT).
- Penalties: ₹250 crore (security safeguards), ₹200 crore (breach notification, children), ₹150 crore (SDF duties), ₹50 crore (residual), ₹10,000 (principal's duties). Child = under 18.
- Section 17: exemptions, including notified State agencies. Section 44(3): amends RTI Section 8(1)(j).
- Timeline: Rules notified Nov 2025; 13 Nov 2026 consent manager registration (net worth at least ₹2 crore, dpbi.gov.in); 13 May 2027 rights, obligations, penalties.
Frequently asked questions
Is the right to privacy a fundamental right in India?
Yes. On 24 August 2017, a nine-judge bench of the Supreme Court held in K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India that privacy is a fundamental right under Article 21 and the freedoms in Part III. The Court overruled M.P. Sharma (1954) and Kharak Singh (1962) to the extent they said otherwise. Like other rights, it can be limited by a law that is legitimate and proportionate.
What is the proportionality test?
It asks three questions of any law that intrudes on privacy: is there a law, does it serve a legitimate State aim, and is the intrusion necessary and no greater than needed, with safeguards against abuse. A law must pass all three. The Court applied this test in Puttaswamy and again in the Aadhaar judgment of 2018.
What is the difference between a data principal and a data fiduciary?
Under the DPDP Act, 2023, the data principal is the individual to whom the personal data relates. The data fiduciary is the person or company that decides why and how that data is processed. The Act places duties on fiduciaries and gives rights to principals.
What is a Consent Manager?
A Consent Manager is an entity registered with the Data Protection Board of India that lets people give, manage, review and withdraw consent through a transparent and interoperable platform. It is accountable to the data principal. Indian companies with a net worth of at least ₹2 crore can apply for registration through the dpbi.gov.in portal, launched after the framework took effect on 13 November 2026.
What is the penalty under the DPDP Act and when do its main provisions begin?
The penalty schedule goes up to ₹250 crore for failure to take reasonable security safeguards, with lower slabs for other breaches. According to the PIB release of 14 November 2026, the rights of data principals, the obligations of fiduciaries and the Board's inquiry and penalty processes are scheduled to start on 13 May 2027.
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