Free Resources / AFCAT Previous Year Papers / Solutions

AFCAT Model Paper II with Solutions

Exam: AFCAT Year: 2025 (Session Model) Questions: 100 Marks: 300 Negative Marking: 1/3

Q.1 [English]

Read the following passage carefully and answer the question given below it. As the rulers of the planet, human beings like to think that it is the large creatures who will emerge victorious in the struggle for survival. However, nature teaches us the opposite. It is often the smallest species which are the toughest and most adaptable. A perfect example is the hummingbird, which is found in the American countries. One species of hummingbird is known as the bee hummingbird which ranks as the world's smallest and lightest bird and it is barely visible when it is in flight. Hummingbirds are the only birds that can fly backwards. They feed mainly on the nectar of flowers, a liquid that is rich in energy. Nectar is an ideal food source, for hummingbirds need an incredible amount of energy to sustain their body metabolism. A hummingbird's wings flap at a rate of about 80 times per second and its tiny heart beats more than 1000 times per minute. This is why they must consume relatively large quantities of food. In the course of a day, a hummingbird consumes nectar as much as half its body weight. The beauty of Nature is the uniqueness of her creation to adapt in any condition. Which of the following statements about the bee hummingbird is true?

(a) It is obviously visible when it flies
(b) It escapes our sight when it is in flight ✓
(c) It can fly high beyond the clouds
(d) It subsists on pollens

Explanation: The passage states that the bee hummingbird 'is barely visible when it is in flight', meaning it escapes our sight when flying. Options c and d are not supported by the passage, and option a directly contradicts the passage.

Q.2 [English]

Read the following passage carefully and answer the question given below it. As the rulers of the planet, human beings like to think that it is the large creatures who will emerge victorious in the struggle for survival. However, nature teaches us the opposite. It is often the smallest species which are the toughest and most adaptable. A perfect example is the hummingbird, which is found in the American countries. One species of hummingbird is known as the bee hummingbird which ranks as the world's smallest and lightest bird and it is barely visible when it is in flight. Hummingbirds are the only birds that can fly backwards. They feed mainly on the nectar of flowers, a liquid that is rich in energy. Nectar is an ideal food source, for hummingbirds need an incredible amount of energy to sustain their body metabolism. A hummingbird's wings flap at a rate of about 80 times per second and its tiny heart beats more than 1000 times per minute. This is why they must consume relatively large quantities of food. In the course of a day, a hummingbird consumes nectar as much as half its body weight. The beauty of Nature is the uniqueness of her creation to adapt in any condition. Nature has made man realise the fact that ____________.

(a) the large creatures emerge victorious in the struggle for survival
(b) the largest species are usually strong, hence survives
(c) humans who rule the planet are the most powerful beings on Earth
(d) the smallest creatures are toughest with strong adaptability and natural survival instinct ✓

Explanation: The passage explicitly states 'nature teaches us the opposite' to what humans assume, and that 'it is often the smallest species which are the toughest and most adaptable', directly supporting option d.

Q.3 [English]

Read the following passage carefully and answer the question given below it. As the rulers of the planet, human beings like to think that it is the large creatures who will emerge victorious in the struggle for survival. However, nature teaches us the opposite. It is often the smallest species which are the toughest and most adaptable. A perfect example is the hummingbird, which is found in the American countries. One species of hummingbird is known as the bee hummingbird which ranks as the world's smallest and lightest bird and it is barely visible when it is in flight. Hummingbirds are the only birds that can fly backwards. They feed mainly on the nectar of flowers, a liquid that is rich in energy. Nectar is an ideal food source, for hummingbirds need an incredible amount of energy to sustain their body metabolism. A hummingbird's wings flap at a rate of about 80 times per second and its tiny heart beats more than 1000 times per minute. This is why they must consume relatively large quantities of food. In the course of a day, a hummingbird consumes nectar as much as half its body weight. The beauty of Nature is the uniqueness of her creation to adapt in any condition. Hummingbirds are unique species, in a sense that ______________.

(a) they can sustain fast body metabolism while flying for long duration to evade predators
(b) their flapping of wings creates humming sound which helps them to fly backwards
(c) they can feed on nectar of flowers by easily steering and hovering in air close to the flowers ✓
(d) they survive only on nectar of flowers, hence requires to consume in large quantity after flight

Explanation: Hummingbirds are uniquely able to fly backwards and hover, which allows them to feed on nectar by staying close to flowers in flight. Option c best captures this unique combination of flight ability and feeding behaviour described in the passage.

Q.4 [English]

Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Spot the error from the given options. He is trying (a)/ to earn money (b)/ for myself and him (c). / no error (d)

(a) He is trying
(b) to earn money
(c) for myself and him ✓
(d) no error

Explanation: The pronoun 'myself' is a reflexive pronoun and cannot be used as an object here; it should be 'for me and him' (objective case). 'Myself' is only correct when referring back to the subject of the sentence.

Q.5 [English]

Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Spot the error from the given options. The doctor observed (a)/ that the patient (b)/ was gradually (c)/ becoming weak (d).

(a) The doctor observed
(b) that the patient
(c) was gradually
(d) becoming weak ✓

Explanation: 'Becoming weak' should be 'becoming weaker' as comparisons or progressive deterioration require the comparative form of the adjective. The sentence describes a gradual change, which calls for 'weaker'.

Q.6 [English]

Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Spot the error from the given options. As soon as I shall reach Mumbai (a)/ I shall send you the file (b)/ you have asked for (c)./ no error (d)

(a) As soon as I shall reach Mumbai ✓
(b) I shall send you the file
(c) you have asked for
(d) no error

Explanation: In clauses of time introduced by 'as soon as', the simple present tense is used (not 'shall'), so it should be 'As soon as I reach Mumbai'. Using 'shall' in a time clause is grammatically incorrect in English.

Q.7 [English]

Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Spot the error from the given options. The students of (a)/ commerce stream are (b)/ not able to cope up (c)/ with the new syllabus (d).

(a) The students of
(b) commerce stream are
(c) not able to cope up ✓
(d) with the new syllabus

Explanation: The correct phrase is 'cope with', not 'cope up with'. The phrasal verb 'cope up with' is incorrect; 'up' is redundant and non-standard in this context.

Q.8 [English]

Read the sentence and spot the error from the given options. This candidate lacks (a)/ an experience (b)/ otherwise (c)/ he is well qualified (d).

(a) This candidate lacks
(b) an experience ✓
(c) otherwise
(d) he is well qualified

Explanation: 'Experience' in the sense of professional or general experience is an uncountable noun and should not be preceded by the article 'an'. The correct form is simply 'experience' without the article.

Q.9 [English]

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word from the given options. There are several ways of ______________ the price at which a product can be marketed.

(a) judging
(b) evaluating
(c) determining ✓
(d) estimating

Explanation: 'Determining' is the most precise and appropriate word here, as pricing in marketing involves a deliberate process of setting or fixing a price. While 'determining' means to definitively fix or decide, the other options imply approximation or assessment rather than the systematic process of setting a price.

Q.10 [English]

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word from the given options. The Managing Director treated the employees to a ____________ lunch at an expensive hotel.

(a) stupendous
(b) sumptuous ✓
(c) tasteful
(d) thriving

Explanation: 'Sumptuous' means splendid and expensive-looking, making it the perfect word to describe a lavish lunch at an expensive hotel. 'Stupendous' means amazingly large, 'tasteful' means aesthetically pleasing, and 'thriving' means prospering — none fit the context as well.

Q.11 [English]

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word from the given options. Contemporary economic development differs ________ from the Industrial Revolution of the 19th century.

(a) naturally
(b) usually
(c) literally
(d) markedly ✓

Explanation: 'Markedly' means to a noticeable or significant degree, and is the most appropriate adverb to describe how significantly contemporary economic development differs from the Industrial Revolution. The other options do not convey the required degree of difference.

Q.12 [English]

In the following question, out of the given alternatives, choose the best one which expresses the meaning of the given word. APATHETIC

(a) Distress
(b) Impatient
(c) Indifferent ✓
(d) Disgust

Explanation: 'Apathetic' means showing or feeling no interest, enthusiasm, or concern — which is synonymous with 'indifferent'. The word comes from 'apathy', meaning lack of feeling or interest.

Q.13 [English]

In the following question, out of the given alternatives, choose the best one which expresses the meaning of the given word. CHERISH

(a) Treasure ✓
(b) Disregard
(c) Forsake
(d) Contest

Explanation: 'Cherish' means to hold something dear or protect lovingly, which is synonymous with 'treasure'. Options b and c are antonyms, and option d is unrelated.

Q.14 [English]

In the following question, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word. OBNOXIOUS

(a) Obscure
(b) Hostile
(c) Gloomy
(d) Pleasant ✓

Explanation: 'Obnoxious' means extremely unpleasant or objectionable. Its antonym is 'pleasant', which means giving a sense of happy satisfaction. The other options are unrelated in meaning.

Q.15 [English]

In the following question, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word. PENSIVE

(a) Hazard
(b) Peasant
(c) Thoughtless ✓
(d) Expedite

Explanation: 'Pensive' means engaged in deep or serious thought. Its antonym is 'thoughtless', meaning without careful consideration or reflection. The other options are not antonyms of pensive.

Q.16 [English]

Select the most appropriate word from the options against X. Democracy has its dangers, the greatest of which is that it may be the rule of ignorance. Citizens who are not X intelligent and educated are likely to commit errors of judgement in Y their franchise. The best candidate may thus, Z to get elected. Elections are usually a matter of propaganda.

(a) barely
(b) adequately ✓
(c) highly
(d) perfectly

Explanation: The sentence says citizens who are 'not X intelligent and educated' make errors of judgement, implying X should describe the sufficient level of intelligence needed. 'Adequately' (sufficiently) fits best — citizens not adequately intelligent and educated will make poor choices.

Q.17 [English]

Select the most appropriate word from the options against Y. Democracy has its dangers, the greatest of which is that it may be the rule of ignorance. Citizens who are not X intelligent and educated are likely to commit errors of judgement in Y their franchise. The best candidate may thus, Z to get elected. Elections are usually a matter of propaganda.

(a) deciding
(b) proclaiming
(c) declaring
(d) exercising ✓

Explanation: The phrase 'exercising their franchise' is the standard and correct collocation in English; franchise (the right to vote) is 'exercised', not decided, proclaimed, or declared.

Q.18 [English]

Select the most appropriate word from the options against Z. Democracy has its dangers, the greatest of which is that it may be the rule of ignorance. Citizens who are not X intelligent and educated are likely to commit errors of judgement in Y their franchise. The best candidate may thus, Z to get elected. Elections are usually a matter of propaganda.

(a) fail ✓
(b) succeed
(c) dislike
(d) desire

Explanation: The context states that citizens make errors of judgement, so the best candidate may 'fail' to get elected because elections are driven by propaganda rather than merit. This logically completes the pessimistic tone of the passage.

Q.19 [English]

The given idiom is followed by four meanings. Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom: Take the bull by the horns

(a) To sabotage a plan
(b) To meet the danger boldly ✓
(c) To remain careful
(d) To lose control

Explanation: 'Take the bull by the horns' is an idiom meaning to deal with a difficult or dangerous situation in a direct and courageous manner — i.e., to meet danger or a challenge boldly and head-on.

Q.20 [English]

The given idiom is followed by four meanings. Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom: To pour oil on troubled waters

(a) To instigate people
(b) To pacify matters ✓
(c) To sail through difficult time
(d) To follow other's opinion

Explanation: 'To pour oil on troubled waters' means to calm a difficult or tense situation, i.e., to pacify matters. It originates from the practice of pouring oil on rough sea to calm the waves.

Q.21 [English]

The given sentence is followed by four phrases/idioms. Choose the one which can be filled in the blank to make the sentence most meaningful and correct. He suspected that the manager has __________________ in the proposal.

(a) an axe to grind ✓
(b) an oily tongue
(c) an alpha and omega
(d) ins and outs

Explanation: 'An axe to grind' means to have a private reason or ulterior motive for doing something. It fits the context of the manager having a hidden personal interest in the proposal.

Q.22 [English]

In the following question there is a related pair of words given. Each pair is followed by four other pairs of words. Choose the pair from the given option the pair of words that best expresses the relationship like the original pair. Promise : Fulfil

(a) Pawn : Redeem ✓
(b) Pledge : Deny
(c) Law : Enforce
(d) Prisoner : Release

Explanation: 'Promise : Fulfil' expresses the relationship of an obligation being completed. 'Pawn : Redeem' mirrors this — something given as security (pawn) is completed/recovered by redeeming, capturing the same obligatory completion relationship.

Q.23 [English]

In the following question there are a related pair of words given. Each pair is followed by four other pairs of words. Choose the pair from the given option the pair of words that best expresses the relationship like the original pair. Heed : Ignore

(a) Pacify : Incite ✓
(b) Surmount : Conquer
(c) Allay : Dispel
(d) Conflict : Discord

Explanation: 'Heed : Ignore' is an antonym pair — to heed means to pay attention while to ignore means the opposite. Similarly, 'Pacify : Incite' are antonyms — to pacify means to calm while to incite means to stir up or provoke.

Q.24 [English]

(a) Freedom : Individuality
(b) Exult : Lament
(c) Weaken : Submission
(d) Endless : Eternal ✓

Explanation: 'Escape : Abscond' are synonyms — both mean to flee or get away. Similarly, 'Endless : Eternal' are synonyms, both meaning having no end or lasting forever.

Q.25 [English]

The following question consists of an incomplete sentence split into four parts. Arrange the jumbled parts to correctly complete the sentence. In spite of an unprecedented boom in the market__________________ what he had sold the previous year. P: and had to remain content Q: the paper dealer could not R: push up his sales S: with a volume of sale lower than

(a) QRPS ✓
(b) SPRQ
(c) QRSP
(d) RPSQ

Explanation: The logical order is: Q (the paper dealer could not) + R (push up his sales) + P (and had to remain content) + S (with a volume of sale lower than) — forming a coherent sentence: 'In spite of an unprecedented boom in the market, the paper dealer could not push up his sales and had to remain content with a volume of sale lower than what he had sold the previous year.'

Q.26 [English]

The following question consists of an incomplete sentence split into four parts. Arrange the jumbled parts to correctly complete the sentence. Private sector is guided by _________________________ have low profitability. P: pattern of society loses its relevance as Q: profit motive and therefore socialistic R: which take long time to complete and S: it does not take interest in the projects

(a) QRPS
(b) PRSQ
(c) RSQP
(d) QPSR ✓

Explanation: The logical order is: Q (profit motive and therefore socialistic) + P (pattern of society loses its relevance as) + S (it does not take interest in the projects) + R (which take long time to complete and) — forming: 'Private sector is guided by profit motive and therefore socialistic pattern of society loses its relevance as it does not take interest in the projects which take long time to complete and have low profitability.'

Q.27 [English]

The following question consists of an incomplete sentence split into four parts. Arrange the jumbled parts to correctly complete the sentence. Science does not merely add new truths ________________ men's thinking and their lives. P: destroy some old truths and Q: discovers new truths that R: thereby upsets the way of S: to old ones, it also

(a) QSRP
(b) SPQR ✓
(c) SQPR
(d) PSRQ

Explanation: The logical order is: S (to old ones, it also) + P (destroy some old truths and) + Q (discovers new truths that) + R (thereby upsets the way of) — forming: 'Science does not merely add new truths to old ones, it also destroy some old truths and discovers new truths that thereby upsets the way of men's thinking and their lives.'

Q.28 [English]

In the following question a sentence or a phrase is given which can be substituted by one word. Choose the most appropriate word. A short story with a moral or spiritual lesson is known as ___________

(a) Fiction
(b) Prose
(c) Parable ✓
(d) Fairy Tale

Explanation: A 'Parable' is by definition a short story used to illustrate a moral or spiritual lesson. It is the precise one-word substitute for the given phrase.

Q.29 [English]

In the following question a sentence or a phrase is given which can be substituted by one word. Choose the most appropriate word. A person who is excessively anxious about his health is known as ___________

(a) Fastidious
(b) Hypochondriac ✓
(c) Pacifist
(d) Chauvinist

Explanation: A 'Hypochondriac' is a person who is excessively and persistently worried or anxious about their health, often believing they have serious illnesses without medical evidence.

Q.30 [English]

In the following question a sentence or a phrase is given which can be substituted by one word. Choose the most appropriate word. The process of compulsory enlistment for military service is called ____________

(a) Recruitment
(b) Conscription ✓
(c) Pantheism
(d) Sinecure

Explanation: 'Conscription' specifically refers to mandatory/compulsory enlistment of individuals into military service, as opposed to voluntary recruitment.

Q.31 [General Awareness]

Name the place where the excavations provided the evidence of maritime trade during the period of the Harappan culture?

(a) Mohenjodaro
(b) Lothal ✓
(c) Kalibangan
(d) Ropar

Explanation: Lothal, located in present-day Gujarat, is the most important Harappan port city. Excavations revealed a dockyard and evidence of maritime trade, making it unique among Harappan sites.

Q.32 [General Awareness]

Which of the following represents the first mass movement started by Mahatma Gandhi?

(a) Non Cooperation Movement
(b) Quit India Movement
(c) Champaran Movement ✓
(d) Salt Movement

Explanation: The Champaran Movement of 1917 was the first mass movement led by Mahatma Gandhi in India, where he fought for the rights of indigo farmers against the British indigo planters in Bihar.

Q.33 [General Awareness]

Which amongst the under mentioned Indian states do not share border with Myanmar?

(a) Meghalaya ✓
(b) Mizoram
(c) Arunachal Pradesh
(d) Nagaland

Explanation: Meghalaya shares its border with Bangladesh to the south and Assam within India — it does not share a border with Myanmar. Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh, and Nagaland all share borders with Myanmar.

Q.34 [General Awareness]

Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(a) Rourkela – Odisha
(b) Durgapur – West Bengal
(c) Jamshedpur – Jharkhand
(d) Bhilai – Madhya Pradesh ✓

Explanation: Bhilai Steel Plant is located in Bhilai, which is in Chhattisgarh (not Madhya Pradesh). Chhattisgarh was carved out of Madhya Pradesh in 2000, so this pairing is incorrect.

Q.35 [General Awareness]

India's highest sporting honour, 'The Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award' has been renamed after which famous personality?

(a) Sunil Gavaskar
(b) PT Usha
(c) Major Dhyan Chand ✓
(d) Sachin Tendulkar

Explanation: In August 2021, the Government of India renamed the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award to the 'Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award' in honour of the legendary Indian hockey player Major Dhyan Chand.

Q.36 [General Awareness]

What is the order of sequence of colours in the Olympic Games logo rings?

(a) Blue, Yellow, Black, Green, Red ✓
(b) Black, Green, Red, Yellow, Green
(c) Yellow, Black, Blue, Red, Green
(d) Green, Black, Blue, Yellow, Red

Explanation: The five Olympic rings, from left to right, are coloured Blue, Yellow, Black, Green, and Red. These five colours were chosen because at least one of them appears in the flag of every nation in the world.

Q.37 [General Awareness]

Name the organisation that organises 'World Sustainable Development Summit (WSDS)', an annual flagship event which provides a platform to discuss and deliberate over climatic issues of universal importance.

(a) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
(b) United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
(c) World Economic Forum (WEF)
(d) The Energy and Resource Institute (TERI) ✓

Explanation: The World Sustainable Development Summit (WSDS) is an annual flagship event organised by The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI), which is India's leading research institute on energy, environment, and sustainable development.

Q.38 [General Awareness]

Which of the following is the folk music of Rajasthan?

(a) Lotia
(b) Pandwani
(c) Chakri ✓
(d) Tappa

Explanation: Chakri is a traditional folk music and dance form of Rajasthan. Pandwani is associated with Chhattisgarh, and Tappa is a semi-classical form associated with Punjab; Chakri belongs to Rajasthan.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.39 [General Awareness]

The famous painting THE LAST SUPPER, was painted by which of the following artist?

(a) Pablo Picasso
(b) Vincent Van Gogh
(c) Leonardo da Vinci ✓
(d) Michelangelo

Explanation: 'The Last Supper' is one of the most famous paintings in the world, created by the Italian Renaissance artist Leonardo da Vinci between 1495 and 1498. It depicts the final meal Jesus shared with his apostles.

Q.40 [General Awareness]

Name the film that has been awarded the 67th National Film award in the category of 'Best Film on Environment Conservation'.

(a) Ottal
(b) Water Burial ✓
(c) Black Forest
(d) Malli

Explanation: At the 67th National Film Awards (for films of 2019), 'Water Burial' (directed by Shri Likmabam Ibomcha Singh) won the Best Film on Environment Conservation/Preservation award.

Q.41 [General Awareness]

Match the List I with the correct options of List II. List I (Property) — List II (Metal) 1. Best Conductor of Heat and electricity — I. Gallium 2. Highly resistant to corrosion — II. Lead 3. Has low melting point but high boiling point — III. Rhodium 4. Least conductor of heat — IV. Silver Choose the most appropriate answer from the options A, B, C, D.

(a) 1-IV, 2-III, 3-I, 4-II ✓
(b) 1-II, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-I
(c) 1-III, 2-II, 3-IV, 4-I
(d) 1-I, 2-III, 3-II, 4-IV

Explanation: Silver (IV) is the best conductor of heat and electricity; Rhodium (III) is highly resistant to corrosion; Gallium (I) has a very low melting point (~30°C) but a high boiling point (~2400°C); Lead (II) is the least conductor of heat among common metals.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.42 [General Awareness]

By which of the following Amendment Act the word 'Secular' was inserted into the Constitution of India?

(a) 44th Amendment Act
(b) 52nd Amendment Act
(c) 34th Amendment Act
(d) 42nd Amendment Act ✓

Explanation: The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 inserted the words 'Secular' and 'Socialist' into the Preamble of the Constitution of India.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.43 [General Awareness]

Which of the following company developed the UPI based payment interface application BHIM 2.0 app?

(a) National Information Corporation
(b) National Payment Corporation of India ✓
(c) Securities and Exchange Board of India
(d) Financial Action Task Force

Explanation: BHIM (Bharat Interface for Money) app, including the 2.0 version, was developed by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) as a UPI-based digital payment application.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.44 [General Awareness]

Match List I with the correct options of List II. List I (Vitamin) — List II (Diseases) 1. Vitamin B — I. Night Blindness 2. Vitamin K — II. Diarrhoea 3. Vitamin C — III. Haemorrhage 4. Vitamin A — IV. Scurvy Choose the most appropriate answer from the options A, B, C, D.

(a) 1-I, 2-IV, 3-III, 4-II
(b) 1-II, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-I ✓
(c) 1-III, 2-IV, 3-II, 4-I
(d) 1-III, 2-II, 3-I, 4-IV

Explanation: Vitamin B deficiency causes Diarrhoea (among other conditions); Vitamin K deficiency causes Haemorrhage (impaired blood clotting); Vitamin C deficiency causes Scurvy; Vitamin A deficiency causes Night Blindness.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.45 [General Awareness]

'For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.' This statement represents which of Newton's Laws of Motion?

(a) Newton's First Law of Motion
(b) Newton's Second Law of Motion
(c) Newton's Third Law of Motion ✓
(d) Newton's Fourth Law of motion

Explanation: Newton's Third Law of Motion states that for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction. There is no Fourth Law of Motion.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.46 [General Awareness]

Which of the following Airline is a joint venture of Singapore Airlines and Tata Sons?

(a) Air India
(b) Vistara ✓
(c) Go Air
(d) Spice Jet

Explanation: Vistara was established as a joint venture between Tata Sons and Singapore Airlines, with each holding respective stakes, and operated until its merger with Air India in 2024.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.47 [General Awareness]

Consider the following statements related to Unified Mobile Application for New age Governance (UMANG). I. UMANG app provides access to only Central Government Service. II. UMANG app is available for Android, iOS, Windows and Kai OS operating system. III. UMANG is currently available only in Hindi and English language. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?

(a) I and II only
(b) II only ✓
(c) II and III only
(d) I, II and III

Explanation: Statement II is correct — UMANG is available on Android, iOS, Windows, and KaiOS. Statement I is incorrect because UMANG provides access to both Central and State Government services. Statement III is incorrect as UMANG supports multiple Indian languages beyond just Hindi and English.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.48 [General Awareness]

Which of the following occasions mark the celebration of National Science Day?

(a) Dr. CV Raman's Birth Anniversary
(b) The day when Dr. CV Raman was awarded The Nobel Prize
(c) The day when The Raman Effect was discovered ✓
(d) Death Anniversary of Dr. CV Raman

Explanation: National Science Day is celebrated on 28 February every year to commemorate the discovery of the Raman Effect by Sir C.V. Raman on that date in 1928.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.49 [General Awareness]

Consider the following pairs of crops and regions: 1. Makhana : Mithila Region of Bihar 2. Gucchi Mushroom : Western Ghats 3. Isabgol : Southern Rajasthan Choose the most appropriate option that represents the correct matching of pairs.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3 only ✓

Explanation: Makhana (fox nuts) is indeed associated with the Mithila region of Bihar, and Isabgol (psyllium husk) is grown primarily in the Mehsana and southern Rajasthan region. Gucchi Mushroom is associated with the Himalayan/Northern mountain regions (Himachal Pradesh, J&K, Uttarakhand), not the Western Ghats, making pair 2 incorrect.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.50 [General Awareness]

Select the country which is not a member of South Asian Association of Regional Cooperation (SAARC).

(a) Nepal
(b) Bhutan
(c) Myanmar ✓
(d) Bangladesh

Explanation: SAARC has eight member states: Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka. Myanmar is not a member of SAARC; it is part of ASEAN.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.51 [General Awareness]

Admission to Sainik Schools in India is normally open for which of the following classes?

(a) Class VI
(b) Class VI and IX ✓
(c) Class IX only
(d) Class VI, IX and XI

Explanation: Sainik Schools in India offer admission at two entry points — Class VI and Class IX — as per the Sainik Schools Society norms, to prepare students for entry into the National Defence Academy and other defence services.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.52 [General Awareness]

Which of the following is an indigenously built light combat aircraft of India?

(a) Akash
(b) Vikrant
(c) Tejas ✓
(d) Arjun

Explanation: Tejas is India's indigenously developed Light Combat Aircraft (LCA), designed and built by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL). Akash is a missile system, Vikrant is an aircraft carrier, and Arjun is a main battle tank.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.53 [General Awareness]

At which Air Force base did the first batch of five Rafale fighter jets arrive?

(a) Ambala ✓
(b) Pathankot
(c) Hindan
(d) Jaisalmer

Explanation: The first batch of five Rafale fighter jets arrived at Ambala Air Force Station in July 2020, which is the home of No. 17 Squadron 'Golden Arrows' of the Indian Air Force.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.54 [General Awareness]

With which country's Air Force did Indian Air Force jointly conclude exercise Garuda-VI?

(a) Japan
(b) Canada
(c) Russia
(d) France ✓

Explanation: Exercise Garuda is a bilateral air exercise conducted between the Indian Air Force and the French Air and Space Force. Garuda-VI was held in France in 2014.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.55 [General Awareness]

Which of the statement(s) is/are most appropriate in respect of Territorial Army? I. It is a volunteer reserve force of the Indian Army II. It is regarded as a profession, occupation or a source of employment III. It is not meant for those people who are already in mainstay civilian profession Choose the most appropriate answer.

(a) I only ✓
(b) II only
(c) II and III
(d) I and III

Explanation: The Territorial Army is a volunteer reserve force (Statement I is correct). It is explicitly not a profession or source of employment (Statement II is incorrect), and it is actually meant for people who are already in civilian professions (Statement III is incorrect) — they serve part-time while continuing their civilian careers.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.56 [Numerical Ability]

If 27^(2n-1) = (243)^3, then the value of n is

(a) 3
(b) 6
(c) 7 ✓
(d) 9

Explanation: 27 = 3^3 and 243 = 3^5. So 3^(3(2n-1)) = 3^15, giving 6n - 3 = 15, thus 6n = 18 and n = 3. Wait — rechecking: 3^(3*(2n-1)) = 3^15 => 6n-3=15 => n=3. But option (a) is 3. Let me re-examine: if the question is 272^(n-1) = 243^3, then 272 is not a clean power; more likely 27^(2n-1) = 243^3 => 3^(3(2n-1)) = 3^15 => 6n-3=15 => n=3. Answer is (a) 3.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.57 [Numerical Ability]

[(40)^2 + (42)^2 + (58)^2] ÷ ? = 58

(a) 58
(b) 232
(c) 116 ✓
(d) 332

Explanation: 40^2 = 1600, 42^2 = 1764, 58^2 = 3364. Sum = 1600 + 1764 + 3364 = 6728. Dividing: 6728 ÷ x = 58, so x = 6728/58 = 116. The answer is 116.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.58 [Numerical Ability]

A can do a work in 10 days and P can do the same work in 20 days. They work together for 5 days and then A goes away. In how many more days will P finish the work?

(a) 5 days ✓
(b) 6.5 days
(c) 10 days
(d) 8.33 days

Explanation: A's rate = 1/10, P's rate = 1/20. Together in 5 days they complete 5*(1/10 + 1/20) = 5*(3/20) = 15/20 = 3/4 of the work. Remaining work = 1/4. P alone takes (1/4)/(1/20) = 5 more days.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.59 [Numerical Ability]

Saral and Himanshu can do a work in 6 days and 8 days respectively. If Saral, Himanshu and Abhishek together can complete the same work in 2 days, then what is the ratio of the earning of Saral, Himanshu and Abhishek provided they are paid in the ratio of the work done by them?

(a) 5:4:3
(b) 3:4:5
(c) 4:3:5 ✓
(d) 4:5:3

Explanation: In 2 days: Saral does 2/6 = 1/3, Himanshu does 2/8 = 1/4. Together they do 1/3 + 1/4 = 7/12. Abhishek does 1 - 7/12 = 5/12 in 2 days. Ratio of work done: 1/3 : 1/4 : 5/12 = 4/12 : 3/12 : 5/12 = 4:3:5.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.60 [Numerical Ability]

There are three taps which are either filling a tank or emptying it. If all the three taps are opened together, the tank is filled in 10 hrs. One of the taps fills in 5 hrs and another in 10 hrs. What does the 3rd tap do?

(a) Empties the tank in 10 hrs. ✓
(b) Empties the tank in 20 hrs.
(c) Empties the tank in 5 hrs.
(d) Fills the tank in 10 hrs.

Explanation: Combined rate = 1/10. Tap1 rate = 1/5, Tap2 rate = 1/10. So 1/5 + 1/10 + x = 1/10, giving x = 1/10 - 1/5 - 1/10 = -1/5. This means the third tap empties at rate 1/5, i.e., empties in 5 hrs. However, checking option C: 1/5+1/10-1/5 = 1/10. Yes, the third tap empties in 5 hrs (option c).

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.61 [Numerical Ability]

The ticket charges at a multiplex cinema hall are reduced by 25%. As a result, attendance in the cinema hall is increased by 10%. Find the change in the revenue earned by the cinema hall.

(a) 22.2 % increase
(b) 17.5 % decrease ✓
(c) 15 % decrease
(d) 12.5 % increase

Explanation: New revenue = 0.75 × 1.10 = 0.825 of original, which is a decrease of 17.5%. Option B is correct.

Q.62 [Numerical Ability]

In a certain exam, A got 33.33% of the total marks of 300. B's marks are one fourth more than A's marks. C got 15 marks less than B. D got 20 marks more than the average marks of A, B and C. How many among A, B, C and D got more than 40% of the total marks?

(a) 0
(b) 1 ✓
(c) 2
(d) 3

Explanation: A = 33.33% of 300 = 100. B = 100 × 1.25 = 125. C = 125 - 15 = 110. Average of A, B, C = (100+125+110)/3 = 111.67; D = 111.67 + 20 = 131.67. 40% of 300 = 120. Only B (125) and D (131.67) exceed 120, so 2 persons. Wait — recalculating: B=125>120, D=131.67>120, so 2 persons. Answer is C (2).

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.62 [Numerical Ability]

(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2 ✓
(d) 3

Explanation: A=100, B=125, C=110, D=(100+125+110)/3+20=111.67+20=131.67. 40% of 300=120. B(125) and D(131.67) both exceed 120, so 2 persons scored more than 40%.

Q.63 [Numerical Ability]

A container contains a mixture of milk and water in the ratio 5:2. First, the volume of the mixture is increased by 25% by adding water and then 20% of the mixture is replaced with water. What is the ratio of milk and water in the resultant mixture?

(a) 16:19 ✓
(b) 7:11
(c) 2:5
(d) 8:13

Explanation: Let initial volume = 7 litres (milk=5, water=2). After adding 25% water, volume=8.75 litres (milk=5, water=3.75). After replacing 20% (1.75 litres) with water: milk=5-0.8×1=4, water=3.75-0.75+1.75. Precisely: milk removed = 5/8.75×1.75=1, remaining milk=4; water remaining=3.75-0.75+1.75=4.75. Ratio=4:4.75=16:19.

Q.64 [Numerical Ability]

A shopkeeper sells a product at 12% discount on his marked price. He is required to pay 10% GST. If he gives a discount of Rs. 36, how much money is he left with after paying GST?

(a) Rs. 234.30
(b) Rs. 233.70
(c) Rs. 237.60 ✓
(d) Rs. 239.40

Explanation: Discount=12% of MP=36, so MP=300. Selling price=300-36=264. GST=10% of 264=26.40. Amount left=264-26.40=237.60.

Q.65 [Numerical Ability]

Ajit bought four books at same price. He sold the books to Bharat at 20% profit, 10% loss, 10% profit and 20% profit respectively. Bharat in turn sold the books to Chitra at 10% loss, 20% profit, 20% loss and 20% profit respectively. By what percent did the total cost of the four books change when Chitra bought them as compared to the total cost when Ajit bought them?

(a) 10%
(b) 15%
(c) 12% ✓
(d) 25%

Explanation: Let CP each = 100. Ajit total = 400. Bharat buys at 120, 90, 110, 120; total=440. Chitra buys at 108, 108, 88, 144; total=448. Change=(448-400)/400×100=12%.

Q.66 [Numerical Ability]

The cost price of an article is increased by Rs. 120, the selling price was increased by Rs. 160. If the profit percentage after the changes is 33.33%, find the profit percentage the trader was making before the changes.

(a) 33.33%
(b) 28%
(c) 25% ✓
(d) 35%

Explanation: Let original CP=C, SP=S. New CP=C+120, new SP=S+160, new profit=33.33%=(1/3). So S+160=(4/3)(C+120) → S=4C/3+160-160=4C/3. Wait: S+160=(4/3)(C+120)=4C/3+160, so S=4C/3. Original profit=(S-C)/C=(4C/3-C)/C=1/3=33.33%. Let me recalculate: S+160=(4/3)(C+120) gives S=(4C+480-480)/3=4C/3, profit=(4C/3-C)/C=1/3=33.33%. That gives same profit. Try: original profit% = (S-C)/C. With S+160=(4/3)(C+120): S=4(C+120)/3-160=(4C+480-480)/3=4C/3. So original profit=(4C/3-C)/C=1/3≈33.33%. Hmm, but that matches answer A. However re-examining: The 160 increase in SP and 120 increase in CP means extra profit = 40. New profit ratio is 33.33%, so new SP = (4/3)×new CP. If we let old CP=x, old SP=y: y+160=(4/3)(x+120)=4x/3+160, so y=4x/3, profit=(y-x)/x=1/3=33.33%. This gives old profit = 33.33% too, so answer A. But that seems trivial. Alternatively if profit% before was 25%: old CP=C, SP=1.25C; new SP=1.25C+160, new CP=C+120; profit%=(1.25C+160-C-120)/(C+120)=(0.25C+40)/(C+120)=1/3 → 0.75C+120=C+120 → 0.25C=0, impossible. Let C=480: old SP=0.25×480+480=600; new SP=760, new CP=600; profit=160/600=26.7%. Try C=360: old SP=450; new SP=610, new CP=480; profit=130/480=27%. Try profit=25% meaning (S-C)/C=0.25 so S=1.25C. New profit=(1.25C+160-C-120)/(C+120)=1/3 → (0.25C+40)/(C+120)=1/3 → 0.75C+120=C+120 → C=0. Invalid. So for 33.33% final profit: (S+160-(C+120))/(C+120)=1/3 → (S-C+40)/(C+120)=1/3 → 3S-3C+120=C+120 → 3S=4C → S/C=4/3 → original profit=1/3=33.33%. Answer is A.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.67 [Numerical Ability]

An amount of Rs. 93,000 be divided among three persons A, B and C in such a way that twice the share of A is equal to thrice the share of B and thrice the share of B is equal to five times the share of C. Find the share of C.

(a) Rs. 15,000
(b) Rs. 18,000 ✓
(c) Rs. 17,500
(d) Rs. 19,000

Explanation: 2A=3B=5C=k. A=k/2, B=k/3, C=k/5. A+B+C=k(1/2+1/3+1/5)=k(15+10+6)/30=31k/30=93000 → k=90000. C=90000/5=18000.

Q.68 [Numerical Ability]

A jar contains a mixture of two liquids A and B in ratio 4:1. When 10 litre of the mixture is replaced with liquid B, the ratio becomes 2:3. How many litres of liquid A was present in the jar initially?

(a) 25
(b) 16 ✓
(c) 20
(d) 18

Explanation: Let total = V. A=4V/5, B=V/5. After removing 10L: A left=4V/5-8=4(V-10)/5, B left=V/5-2+(10)=V/5+8. Ratio=(4V/5-8)/(V/5+8)=2/3 → 12V/5-24=2V/5+16 → 10V/5=40 → V=20. A initially=4×20/5=16.

Q.69 [Numerical Ability]

In what ratio should water be added to a liquid costing Rs. 12 per litre to make a profit of 25% while selling the diluted liquid at Rs. 13.75 per litre?

(a) 5:7
(b) 1:11
(c) 7:2 ✓
(d) 2:7

Explanation: CP of mixture to earn 25% profit at SP=13.75: CP=13.75/1.25=11 per litre. Water costs 0, liquid costs 12. By alligation: (12-11):(11-0)=1:11. So water:liquid=1:11, meaning liquid:water=11:1. But none of the options match 11:1 directly. Option C is 7:2 (liquid:water). Let me recheck: ratio of liquid to water needed. CP of mix = (12×L + 0×W)/(L+W) = 11 → 12L=11L+11W → L=11W → L:W=11:1. So water:liquid=1:11 which is option B. Answer is B.

⚠ Answer needs review

Q.70 [Numerical Ability]

Find the rate of interest if a sum of money becomes 8 times after 3 years when interest is being compounded annually.

(a) 25%
(b) 50%
(c) 75%
(d) 100% ✓

Explanation: P(1+r)^3=8P → (1+r)^3=8 → 1+r=2 → r=1=100%.

Q.71 [Numerical Ability]

On investing Rs. 5,000 in a bank, A will get back Rs. 5,671 in 2 years. What is the compound rate of interest?

(a) 5%
(b) 5.5%
(c) 6%
(d) 6.5% ✓

Explanation: 5000(1+r)^2=5671 → (1+r)^2=1.1342 → 1+r≈1.065 → r≈6.5%.

Q.72 [Numerical Ability]

A bank offers a rate of interest of 16% per annum, compounded semi-annually. What will be the approximate interest generated on an amount of Rs. 10,000 kept for 2 years?

(a) Rs. 3,600
(b) Rs. 3,605 ✓
(c) Rs. 3,610
(d) Rs. 3,620

Explanation: Rate per half-year=8%, periods=4. Amount=10000×(1.08)^4=10000×1.36049=13604.9. Interest≈3605.

Q.73 [Numerical Ability]

A car covers a distance in 8 hours. Had the speed been increased by 4 kmph, the time taken would have reduced by 30 minutes. Find the distance.

(a) 360 km
(b) 480 km ✓
(c) 300 km
(d) 400 km

Explanation: Let speed=v. Distance=8v. At speed v+4, time=7.5 hrs. So 8v=(v+4)×7.5 → 8v=7.5v+30 → 0.5v=30 → v=60. Distance=8×60=480 km.

Q.74 [Numerical Ability]

One third of the journey is covered at the rate of 30 km/hr, one fourth of the remaining is covered at 40 km/hr and remaining is covered at 50 km/hr. What is the average speed of the whole journey?

(a) 45 km/hr
(b) 40 km/hr
(c) 38 km/hr
(d) 39.5 km/hr ✓

Explanation: Let total distance=12 units. First part=4 units at 30; remaining=8 units, one-fourth=2 units at 40; rest=6 units at 50. Total time=4/30+2/40+6/50=2/15+1/20+3/25. LCM=300: 40/300+15/300+36/300=91/300. Avg speed=12/(91/300)=3600/91≈39.56≈39.5 km/hr.

Q.75 [Numerical Ability]

Three dogs D1, D2 and D3 undergo a training programme to walk. After the training, the distances covered by 3 steps of D1, 4 steps of D2 and 5 steps of D3 are equal. Further, in the time taken by D1 to take 5 steps, D2 takes 4 steps and D3 takes 6 steps. What is the ratio of the walking speeds of D1, D2 and D3 respectively?

(a) 25:15:18 ✓
(b) 15:18:25
(c) 25:18:25
(d) 18:25:15

Explanation: Step lengths: 3×D1=4×D2=5×D3=k. D1 step=k/3, D2 step=k/4, D3 step=k/5. In same time unit, D1 takes 5 steps, D2 takes 4 steps, D3 takes 6 steps. Speed=steps×step_length: D1=5×k/3=5k/3; D2=4×k/4=k; D3=6×k/5=6k/5. Ratio=5/3:1:6/5=25:15:18.

Q.76 [Reasoning and Military Aptitude]

In the following question, select a figure from the given options I, II, III and IV which when placed in the blank space of figure X would complete the pattern.

(a) I
(b) II
(c) III
(d) IV